Answer: option B
Explanation:
in A) budget deficit = G+Tr - T
= 30+20-40
= 10
In B) private saving , Y-C-T = 60
Y = C+G+I
So, C+G+I-C-T = 60
G-T = 60-40 = 20
Budget deficit= 20, HIGHEST
In C) Y = C+G+I+Tr - T
300 = 180+G+ 90 + 20-60
G = 70
So budget deficit= G-T
= 70-60
= 10
The answer for this question is False
The answer is greater than cash inflows. The explanation behind this is cash flow gaps happen when cash outflows are greater than cash inflows. Cash flow budgets assist financial managers determine whether the business needs to seek outside sources of funds beyond sales to manage projected cash shortages.
The journal entry when writing off an account as uncollectible under the allowance method is:
Allowance for Doubtful Debts ( Dr.) xxxxx
Accounts Receivable ( Cr.) xxxxx
The allowance technique involves putting aside a reserve for terrible debts that are expected in the future. The reserve is based on a percent of the income generated in a reporting length, possibly adjusted for the danger associated with positive clients.
The allowance technique is used to determine how an awful lot of money a commercial enterprise needs to set apart for future awful or unrecoverable customer debt. It factors in the price of the losses an organization expects from extending patron credit.
The allowance approach requires a small commercial enterprise to estimate at the cease of the 12 months how an awful lot awful debt they have got, while the direct write-off method we could owners write off horrific debt whenever they determine a patron might not pay an invoice.
Learn more about the allowance method here brainly.com/question/4636062
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Answer:
A. $0
Explanation:
The Tax Cuts and Jobs Act eliminated personal exemptions starting 2018. It also increased standard deductions though. For example, the standard deduction for married filing jointly for 2019 was $24,400. This is a significant increase if you consider that the standard deduction for married filing jointly in 2017 was $12,700.
