Answer:
b. AD II DC
math is annoying, a lot of the stuff they teach we don't use in the real world lol
Answer:
1/8
Step-by-step explanation:
This is actually pretty easy.
First, you have the sample of the children.
You know that the family with 3 children, can only have the following children:
MMM: all males
MMF: 2 males, 1 female
MFF: 1 male, 2 females
MFM: 2 males, 1 female (different order)
FMM: 1 female, 2 males
FFM: 2 females, 1 male
FMF: 2 females, 1 male
FFF: 3 females
If you count all of these possibilities, we have 8 possible cases of family with the childrens.
In only one of them, we have only females and no males, which is the last one, all 3 females.
Therefore, the probability to select a family with no male, is only 1/8.
Answer:
i believe it only has one solution, which would be x=12.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
16%
Step-by-step explanation:
The additional wage amount is $80.
The original wage amount is $500.
The ratio of the two is ...
$80/$500 = 0.16 = 16/100
To express that ratio as a percentage, multiply it by 100%.
0.16 × 100% = 16%
_____
It might help you to think of the percent sign (%) as a fancy way to write "per hundred" (/100). Of course, using your knowledge of place value, you know that 0.16 = sixteen hundredths = 16/100.
Realizing the meaning of the % sign, you can immediately write this as 16%.