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Veseljchak [2.6K]
3 years ago
6

Tom simplified an expression in three steps, as shown:

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleksandr-060686 [28]3 years ago
8 0
Step 3, you cannot add exponents of differing bases
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Need help on 2, b, c, and 3 please.
Svetlanka [38]
A/Wall if you have 20 and 30 that box is missing # so you will need to times and you will get something like this 20×30=60 and that's the missing #

B/Its going to be about 768 so you need to times and if you don't get 768


4 0
3 years ago
According to DeMorgan 's theorem, the complement of W · X + Y · Z is W' + X' · Y' + Z'. Yet both functions are 1 for WXYZ = 1110
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

The parenthesis need to be kept intact while applying the DeMorgan's theorem on the original equation to find the compliment because otherwise it will introduce an error in the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to DeMorgan's Theorem:

(W.X + Y.Z)'

(W.X)' . (Y.Z)'

(W'+X') . (Y' + Z')

Note that it is important to keep the parenthesis intact while applying the DeMorgan's theorem.

For the original function:

(W . X + Y . Z)'

= (1 . 1 + 1 . 0)

= (1 + 0) = 1

For the compliment:

(W' + X') . (Y' + Z')

=(1' + 1') . (1' + 0')

=(0 + 0) . (0 + 1)

=0 . 1 = 0

Both functions are not 1 for the same input if we solve while keeping the parenthesis intact because that allows us to solve the operation inside the parenthesis first and then move on to the operator outside it.

Without the parenthesis the compliment equation looks like this:

W' + X' . Y' + Z'

1' + 1' . 1' + 0'

0 + 0 . 0 + 1

Here, the 'AND' operation will be considered first before the 'OR', resulting in 1 as the final answer.

Therefore, it is important to keep the parenthesis intact while applying DeMorgan's Theorem on the original equation or else it would produce an erroneous result.

3 0
3 years ago
How do you do these two questions?
nignag [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) ∫₋ₒₒ°° f(x) dx

We can split this into three integrals:

= ∫₋ₒₒ⁻¹ f(x) dx + ∫₋₁¹ f(x) dx + ∫₁°° f(x) dx

Since the function is even (symmetrical about the y-axis), we can further simplify this as:

= ∫₋₁¹ f(x) dx + 2 ∫₁°° f(x) dx

The first integral is finite, so it converges.

For the second integral, we can use comparison test.

g(x) = e^(-½ x) is greater than f(x) = e^(-½ x²) for all x greater than 1.

We can show that g(x) converges:

∫₁°° e^(-½ x) dx = -2 e^(-½ x) |₁°° = -2 e^(-∞) − -2 e^(-½) = 0 + 2e^(-½).

Therefore, the smaller function f(x) also converges.

(b) The width of the intervals is:

Δx = (3 − -3) / 6 = 1

Evaluating the function at the beginning and end of each interval:

f(-3) = e^(-9/2)

f(-2) = e^(-2)

f(-1) = e^(-1/2)

f(0) = 1

f(1) = e^(-1/2)

f(2) = e^(-2)

f(3) = e^(-9/2)

Apply Simpson's rule:

S = Δx/3 [f(-3) + 4f(-2) + 2f(-1) + 4f(0) + 2f(1) + 4f(2) + f(3)]

S ≈ 2.5103

5 0
3 years ago
A car dealership buys a car from a factory for $25,000. If the car dealership marks up the price of the car by 40% before sellin
kogti [31]

Answer:35k

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jonathan is building a fence for his chickens. The length of a rectangle is
mina [271]

Answer:

Width = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

(P=2L+2W) = 72

L = 3W<- length is triple the width

(P = 2(3W) + 2W) = 72

P = 8W =72

W = 9

7 0
3 years ago
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