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Deffense [45]
4 years ago
10

A favorable direct materials cost variance occurs when the actual direct

Business
1 answer:
Shkiper50 [21]4 years ago
8 0
A favorable direct materials cost variance occurs when the actual direct cost of the materials is lower than the budgeted cost of materials. Favorable direct materials cost variance would indicate<span> that there was savings with the cost for the direct materials used by the company.</span>
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In 1895, the first putting green championship was held. the winner’s prize money was $190. in 2014, the winner’s check was $1,49
Ket [755]

Answer:

The interest rate is 7.83%

Explanation:

The winner price in the year 1895 = $190

The winner price in the year 2014 = $1490000

Time duration between, 2014 – 1895 = 119 years

Now we have to find the interest rate at which the winner price has been increased. Thus, use the below formula to find the interest rate.

Future value = present value (1+ r)^n

Future value = $1490000

Present value = $190

n = 119

Now insert the values in the formula.

1490000 = 190(1 + r)^119

1490000 / 190 = (1+r)^119

r = 0.07826 or 7.83%

4 0
3 years ago
Great Lakes Packing has two bond issues outstanding. The first issue has a coupon rate of 3.54 percent, a par value of $1,000 pe
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

3.20%

Explanation:

The firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt can be determined by first of all determining the before-tax cost of each debt.

Using a financial calculator, the before-tax costs of debt are ascertained as follows:

Bond 1:

N=8(number of semiannual coupons in 4 years)

PMT=17.70  (semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=$1,000*3.54%/2=$17.70)

PV=-1030(current price=$1000*103%=$1030)

FV=1000(the face value is $1000)

CPT

I/Y=1.37%(the semannual yield, annual yield=1.37%*2=2.74%)

after-tax cost of first debt=2.74%*(1-39%)=1.67%

Bond 2:

N=46(number of semiannual coupons in 23  years)

PMT=30.50 (semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=$1,000*6.10%/2=$30.50)

PV=-950(current price=$1000*95%=$950)

FV=1000(the face value is $1000)

CPT

I/Y=3.26%%(the semannual yield, annual yield=3.26%%*2=6.52%)

after-tax cost of second debt=6.52%*(1-39%)=3.98%

market value of first debt=$3.8 million*103%=$3,914,000

market value of second debt=$8.1 million*95%=$7,695,000

total market value of debts=$3,914,000+$7,695,000=$11,609,000

firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt=(1.67%*$3,914,000/$11,609,000)+(3.98%*$7,695,000/$11,609,000)

firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt=3.20%

5 0
3 years ago
Compared to the 80 million or so households in the u. s. consumer market, there are:________
katovenus [111]

Answer:

few customers in the B2B market

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

A. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firm's marginal, after-tax cost of capital

Explanation:

3 0
4 years ago
The interest rate for a $1,000 bond is 18 percent. If comparable bonds are paying 17 percent, what is the approximate market val
siniylev [52]

Answer:

Hi how are they .how Many children do you have

8 0
3 years ago
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