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Sever21 [200]
4 years ago
15

The risk premium of a security is determined by its ________ risk and does not depend on its

Business
1 answer:
Neko [114]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: (B) Systematic, Unsystematic

Explanation:

The systematic risk is one of the type of investment and it is measured by investment return covariance in the market. The systematic risk is basically divided by market risk once it is calculated.

The premium risk of the security is mainly determine by the systematic risk and it is not depend upon its unsystematic risk.

The unsystematic risks is basically inherited from the specific industry and the risk can be reduced by the diversification.

Therefore, Option (B) is correct.

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The rule of 70 is a measure of how long it will take for prices to __________ at a given inflation rate.
swat32

Answer:

A. double

Explanation:

Rule 70 is used to calculate the numbers of years it takes for an investment  or variable to double in value given a certain growth rate. In this case, the variable is prices and the growth rate is  inflation  rate. It is calculated by dividing number 70 by inflation rate.

For example;

Assume inflation rate is 6%, the prices will double in ; 70/6 = 11.7 years

And if inflation is 2%, the prices will double in 70/2 = 35 years

8 0
3 years ago
Service that provide when the customer is still in the store​
Crazy boy [7]
This could be customer service.
8 0
3 years ago
Glavine Corporation manufactures precision equipment made to order for the semiconductor industry. Glavine uses two manufacturin
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

1.                                               Machining           Assembly

Budgeted overhead rates

= <u>Budgeted overhead</u>            <u>5,850,000 </u>        <u>7,812,000  </u>

  Budgeted activity level        90,000 hours   124,000 hours

                                               = $65/machine hr  = $63/labour hr

2. Overhead applied

= Overhead application rate    $65 x 80,000 hrs  $63 x 100,000

 x Actual activity level               = $5,200,000        = $6,300,000

Under allocated overhead

= Overhead applied                     = $5,200,000       = $6,300,000

- Actual overhead                          - $5,470,000        - $8,234,000

                                                         $270,000              $1,934,000

Note: Actual machine hours of 80,000 hours and actual direct labour hours of 100,00 hours are assumed because these figures were omitted from the question.

Explanation:

Budgeted overhead rate is calculated as budgeted overhead for each department divided by budgeted activity level for each department. Overhead applied is budgeted overhead rate multiplied by actual activity level  (actual hours) for each department. The actual machine hours and actual direct labour hours were omitted from the question. Thus, 80,000 machine hours and 100,000 direct labour hours were assumed for Machining Department and Assembly Department respectively. Then, under allocated overhead is calculated as overhead applied minus actual overhead incurred for each department.

3 0
4 years ago
Suppose the economy goes from a point on its production possibilities frontier (PPF) to a point below that PPF. Assuming that th
qaws [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is: a new law that interferes with economic efficiency.

Explanation:

A production possibilities frontier shows all the points where production is efficient. The resources are being completely employed. The points above the frontier are unattainable. The points below the frontier are attainable but inefficient.

If there is a movement from the frontier to a point below it. This means inefficient allocation of resources. It can happen because of some law interfering in efficient allocation of resources.

3 0
3 years ago
common stock for $12,900 (Coronado does not have significant influence). During the year, Sherman paid a cash dividend of $3.25
sveta [45]

Answer:

Detailed solution is given below:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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