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Aleks04 [339]
3 years ago
10

The estimated factory overhead cost for a Co. is $1750000 for the year. Direct labor hours are estimated to be 500000. Determine

: SHOW ALL WORK a. Predetermined factory overhead rate. $ b. Determine the factory overhead applied assume the actual direct labor hours for Job 50 was. 20000 and for J0b 51 was 24000 . c. Determine the balance in the factory overhead account assuming that the actual cost incurred was $153000. d. Over or under-applied
Business
1 answer:
Nataly [62]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,750,000 / 500,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $3.5 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead to Job 50 and 51:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Job 50:

Allocated MOH= 3.5*20,000

Allocated MOH= $70,000

Job 51:

Allocated MOH= 3.5*24,000

Allocated MOH= $84,000

F<u>inally, the under/over applied overhead:</u>

(We weren't provided with enough information)

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

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On January 2, Haskins Company purchases a laser cutting machine for use in fabrication of a part for one of its key products. Th
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Explanation:

Cost of machine - $80000

Useful life - 5 years

Salvage value -$5000

Depreciable amount = 80000-5000= 75000

Annual depreciation = 75000/5 = 15000

Year                    DR                       Accum Dep

Cost                                                                                   8000                  

1                Depreciation 15000       15000  

2               Depreciation  15000      30000

Year 3      Depreciation  15000      45000

Year 4      Depreciation   15000      60000

Year 5      Depreciation   15000      75000

Financial statement template

Balanced sheet

Cash asset + Non cash asset = liabilities + Equity

Cash asset + 65000  = liabilities + equity

Income statement

Revenue - expenses = Net income

Revenue - 15000 - Net Income

3 0
3 years ago
Managers make assumptions in CVP analysis. These assumptions include: (Check all that apply.) Multiple select question. some uni
BigorU [14]

The assumptions that are made in CVP analysis includes the following:

  • costs can be classified as variable or fixed.
  • costs are linear within the relevant range.
  • constant fixed cost per unit.

<h3>What is CVP analysis?</h3>

Cost Volume Profit analysis is the type of analysis that has to do with the cost accounting. This type of analysis is one that takes the impact of the various costs and volume on profit.

It helps to check how the changes that occur in the variable and the fixed cost affect profit.

Read more on CVP analysis here:

brainly.com/question/26654564

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4 0
2 years ago
debits to Work in Process--Assembly Department for April, together with data concerning production, are as follows: April 1, wor
Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

The conversion cost per equivalent unit is $3.31

Explanation:

The computation of the conversion cost per equivalent unit is shown below:

= Total conversion costs ÷ Total equivalent units

where,

Total conversion cost = completed units + Conversion costs during April

                                    = $6,000 + $35,000

                                    = $41,000

And, the total equivalents units equal to

= Finished good units × percentage of completion + ending work in process units  × percentage of completion

= 11,500 units × 100% + 1,500 units × 60%

= 11,500 units + 900 units

= 12,400 units

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the per unit would equal to

= $41,000 ÷ 12,400 units

= $3.31 per unit

7 0
3 years ago
Assume that a U.S. firm considers investing in British one-year Treasury securities. The interest rate on these securities is 12
MArishka [77]

Answer:

equal to the british interest rate

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

The Interest rate on these securities = 12%

In the U.S, the interest rate = 10%

Also the spot rate for today would become suitable for the spot rate

Based on the above information, the effective yield on the british securities would be equivalent to the british interest rate and hence the same is to be considered

7 0
3 years ago
Flint Company is evaluating the purchase of a rebuilt spot-welding machine to be used in the manufacture of a new product. The m
JulijaS [17]
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3 0
3 years ago
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