3 years ago

A number cube has sides numbered 1 through 6. The probability of rolling a 2 is 16

Mathematics

2 answers:

anastassius [24]3 years ago

6 0

Well since you have 1/6 chances of getting a 2 you would have 5/6 chances of getting a 2
hope that helps

ser-zykov [4K]3 years ago

3 0

Hello there.

A number cube has sides numbered 1 through 6. The probability of rolling a 2 is 16
what is the probability of not rolling a 2?

Answer: I'm guessing that by 16 you meant 1/6. Therefore you do 6/6 - 1/6 = 5/6,
Therefore the answer is 5/6.

Hope This Helps You!
Good Luck Studying ^-^

You might be interested in

Dawn and Jackson have baseball cards in the ratio of 2:3. Together, they have a total of 60 baseball cards. How many baseball ca

loris [4]

Answer:

24 and 36

Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 3x = 60

5x = 60

x = 12

Dawn has 2(12) = 24

Jackson has 3(12) = 36

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A diver went 25. 65 feet below the surface of the ocean and then 16.5 Think it further down here then rose 12.45 feet right and

Flauer [41]

-25.65 - 16.5 + 12.45 = -29.7......he is now at 29.7 ft below the surface

7 0

3 years ago

Given b(x)=|x+4|, what is b(-10)? A.-10 b. -6 c. 6 d. 14

RideAnS [48]

The equation that they have given is an absolute function meaning any outcome in this function will be POSITIVE no matter what.
For example
B(-6) = l-6 + 4l
B(-6) = l-2l or B(-6) = 2

YOUR ANSWER

B(-10) = l -10 + 4l
B(-10) = l-6l or B (-10) = 6

so therefore your answer is C. 6

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE HELP WILL MARK BRAINLIEST

Ivanshal [37]

First one pretty obvious

8 0

2 years ago

42/40 into a mixed number is??

SSSSS [86.1K]

Hello there!

So, as we see that 42 is more than the denominator, so, we would have to see by how much it would be over.

40-42=2.

So, sense we have an whole number which would be (1)

Your answer: $\boxed{\boxed{\bf 1\frac{2}{40} }}$

6 0

3 years ago