Answer:
21%
Explanation:
Given that,
Cost of share = $21.70
Expect to pay dividend in year 1 = $1.00
Expect to pay dividend in year 2 = $1.16
Expect to pay dividend in year 3 = $1.3456
Expected selling price of share at the end of year 3 = $28.15
Growth rate in Dividends:
= [(Dividend in Year 2 - Dividend in Year 1) ÷ Dividend in Year 1] × 100
= [($1.16 - $1.00) ÷ $1.00] × 100
= 0.16 × 100
= 16%
Expected dividend yield
:
= (Dividend in year 1 ÷ Cost of Share
) × 100
= (1.00 ÷ $21.70) × 100
= 0.05 × 100
= 5%
Stock's expected total rate of return:
= Expected Dividend Yield + Growth rate in Dividends
= 5% + 16%
= 21%
Answer:
The required rate of return for the project will be 13.087%
Explanation:
To calculate the required rate of return for the project, we must first calculate the required rate of return for the firm's equity. The required rate of return can be calculated using the CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model equation. The formula for required rate of return (r) under this model is,
r = rRf + Beta * rpM
Where,
- rRF is the risk free rate
- rpM is the risk premium on market
r = 0.027 + 1.23 * 0.069
r = 0.11187 or 11.187%
The discount rate that is usually used for an all equity firm is its required rate of return. Thus, the required rate of return for the project will be,
r = 0.11187 + 0.019
r = 0.13087 or 13.087%
Answer:
True
Explanation:
If a natural disaster occurs, house insurance can prevent you from further financial loss, as some compensation would be given.
Answer:
To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>
Explanation:
The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).
When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.
This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.
Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.
