The rule for inscribed angles and their corresponding arcs is that the measure of the angle is one-half that of the arc. Therefore, all we have to do is divide 68/2, which gets us an answer of D. 34.
Hope this helps!
Easy, it says "for ANY positive integer" so just test any positive integer
remember that n! means times all integers from 1 to that number n
lets try 1
(1+1)!/(1!)-1=
(2!)/(1!)-1=
2/1-1=
2-1=
1
if you don't believe me, try 2
(2+1)!/(2!)-2=
(3!)/(2!)-2=
(6)/(2)-2=
3-2=
1
te answer is 1, B
and number 9
easy, remember the exponential law
(x^m)(x^n)=x^(m+n)
jsut add the exponents
first gropu like bases
(r^2r^2/3)(t^1/2t^-3/2)
add bases
(r^2 and 2/3)(t^-1)=
(r^2∛(r^2))(1/t)=
Answer:
i forgo
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
V= −7
Step-by-step explanation:
In pic
( hope this helps have a great day :) .)