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grin007 [14]
3 years ago
14

Somebody find me a bf age 13-15.....email me zylaysia.wright at sign icloud.com

Business
2 answers:
barxatty [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

why did you ask in a place for educational questions?

jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

If you really want to find a boyfriend you 1st have to work on yourself then go find someone with the qualities you want them to have. If you already did thr 1st thing I told you. You need to give us what you want in a guy because we can find you a boyfriend but you might not like it.

Explanation:

Just please dm and sent me a friend request and I would be more than happy to help you with what you need.

You might be interested in
Based on market values, Gubler's Gym has an equity multiplier of 1.46 times. Shareholders require a return of 10.91 percent on t
rewona [7]

Answer:

The answer is "5.4% and 15,23,500".

Explanation:

Calculating the capital cost:

=(1-\frac{1}{1.46})\times 10.91\% \times (1-39\%)+(\frac{1}{1.46})\times 4.84\% \\\\=(\frac{1.46-1}{1.46})\times \frac{10.91}{100} \times (\frac{100-39}{100})+(\frac{1}{1.46})\times \frac{4.84}{100} \\\\ =(\frac{0.46}{1.46})\times \frac{10.91}{100} \times (\frac{61}{100})+(\frac{1}{1.46})\times \frac{4.84}{100} \\\\=\frac{306.1346}{14600}+\frac{4.84}{146} \\\\=  0.021+0.033 \\\\ =0.054\\\\= 5.4\%

Maximum amount to be spent

=\frac{277,000\times 100 }{5.4} \times (1-\frac{1}{(1.054)^7})\\\\=\frac{277,000\times 100 }{5.4} \times (1-\frac{1}{1.44})\\\\=\frac{277,000\times 100 }{5.4} \times (1-0.7)\\\\=277,000 \times 100\times 0.055\\\\=\$15,23,500\\

6 0
3 years ago
Cherokee Inc. is a merchandiser that provided the following information: Number of units sold 14,000 Selling price per unit $ 16
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the cost of goods sold:</u>

<u></u>

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods purchased - ending finished inventory

COGS= 12,000 + 87,000 - 23,000

COGS= $76,000

<u>Traditional format income statement:</u>

Sales= 14,000*16= 224,000

COGS= (76,000)

Gross profit= 148,000

Total selling expense= (20,000 + 14,000*1)= (34,000)

Total administrative expense= (13,000 + 14,000*1)= (27,000)

Net operating income= 87,000

<u>Contribution format income statement:</u>

Sales= 14,000*16= 224,000

Total variable cost= (76,000 + 14,000 + 14,000)= (104,000)

Contribution margin= 120,000

Total fixed selling expense= (20,000)

Total fixed administrative expense= (13,000)

Net operating income= 87,000

5 0
3 years ago
Zen Arcade paid the weekly payroll on January 2 by debiting Salaries and Wages Expense for $47,000. The accountant preparing the
Travka [436]

Answer:

The correct entry is to reverse the entry on December 3rd

Dr Salaries and Wages expenses of $27,000

Cr Salaries and Wages payable of $27,000

Explanation:

During the time of the accrued entry, which is on December 31st

the company registered

Dr Salaries and Wages PAYABLE of $27,000

Cr Salaries and Wages EXPENSES of $27,000

It was just an accrued entry to be able to identify the expenses to the balance sheet, but currently on the original expenses on January 3rd, the entry is reverse, then the real or main expenses is recorded in the balance sheet.

Dr Cash of $47,000

Cr Salaries and Wages EXPENSES of $47,000

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the central bank has increased the money supply such that there is an additional $ 231115 in excess reserves. If th
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

$196448

Explanation:

Since the central bank has increased the money supply by $231115 but the reserve ratio is maintained at 15%, this means that 85% of the money is being injected in the form of money supply.

Hence, the maximum increase in money supply, the 85% of $231115 is: $196448.

Hope this helps.

Thank you and Good luck.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On September 30, 2021, Bricker Enterprises purchased a machine for $200,000. The estimated service life is 10 years with a $20,0
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

$38,000

Explanation:

Double-declining-balance method used its ratio by computing depreciation expense. By multiplying it against original cost. To get ratio we simply divide 100% over the life of an asset times 2.

100% / 10 years x 2 = 20%

First, we will compute the 2021 depreciation for us to know our base amount on year 2022.

$200,000 x 20% = $40,000 x3/12 = $10,000

we prorate the annual depreciation expense because part of it is applicable to 2021 and 2022.

For year 2022, we have two ways to compute.

First:

$200,000 x 20% = $40,000 x 9/12 = $30,000 (the portion of the first year’s depreciation that’s for January 1, 2022 to September 30,2022), plus

$200,000 - $40,000 = $160,000 (year 2 net book value)

$160,000 x 20% = 32,000 x 3/12 = $8,000 (portion of second year’s depreciation that for October 01, 2022 to December 31, 2022)

Or second, an alternative way to compute,

2021

$200,000 x 20% = $40,000 x 3/12=$10,000

2022

$200,000 - $10,000 = $190,000 (Net book value)

$190,000 x 20% = $38,000

*Residual value is ignored in computing depreciation expense under double-declining-balance method.

7 0
4 years ago
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