2,793 57x48 2,793 hope this helps
Answer:
m∠BJK = 146
m∠IJB = 26
Step-by-step explanation:
m∠BJK + m∠IJB = m∠IJK
<em>146 </em>+2x + 2x +<em>26</em> = 172
<em> 172 </em> + 4x = 172
4x = 172 -172 = 0
x = 0
m∠BJK = 146
m∠IJB = 26
Answer:
$16
Step-by-step explanation:
Both lines start at 0 and at 30 mins it is $6. It displays a ratio so that means every 10 mins they earn $2
Explanation:
Lets interpret Z with M trials. First we have M trials, each trial can be a success or not. The number of success is called N. Each trial that is a success becomes a trial, and if it is a success it becomes a success for Z. Thus, in order for a trial to be successful, it needs first to be successful for the random variable N (and it is with probability q), and given that, it should be a success among the N trials of the original definition of Z (with probability p).
This gives us that each trial has probability pq of being successful. Note that this probability is pq independently of the results of the other trials, because the results of the trials of both N and the original definition of Z are independent. This shows us that Z is the total amount of success within M independent trials of an experiment with pq probability of success in each one. Therefore, Z has Binomial distribution with parameters pq and M.
Answer:
7
Step-by-step explanation:
The two parallel line indicates that the sides are proportional.
12:15, the ratio is 0.8
0.8*8.75=7