1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
uranmaximum [27]
2 years ago
6

How did the mining industry contribute to the development of railroads?

History
1 answer:
m_a_m_a [10]2 years ago
3 0
The mining industry contributed to the development of railroads because the mining industry required transport routes to transport the goods that they mined to factories to be processed and urban centers to be finished and sold. Also they helped to contribute to the development of railroads by providing the metals and other inputs necessary to build the railroads themselves. 
You might be interested in
Spain and Portugal agreed to divide ownership of the entire unexplored world. *
marin [14]
Spain and Portugal divided the New World by drawing a north-to-south line of demarcation in the Atlantic Ocean, about 100 leagues (555 kilometers or 345 miles) west of the Cape Verde Islands, off the coast of northwestern Africa and then controlled by Portugal.
3 0
2 years ago
In what ways did the lives of urban workers improve after 1870
spayn [35]
Their lives improved because the material conditions in their surrounding improved. They had higher quality homes, higher levels of sanitation, working sewage, better access to medical care if need be, and many other things.
3 0
2 years ago
What are some of the reasons people gave to avoid being drafted?
Svetlanka [38]
People would say they were homosexual or they would make up an illnessor just simply hid from the government in Canada 
8 0
2 years ago
Less than 20 percent of all adults used social media to look for information about rallies or protests in their area.
Sergio [31]

Answer:

i think true, i might be wrong.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
According to the ruling in Dred Scott, Congress was prohibited from
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

Prohibiting slavery in the territories.

Explanation:

According to the ruling it was decided that Congress had exceeded their authority when ratifying the Missouri Compromise, and therefore "had no power to forbid or abolish slavery in the territories west of Missouri and north of latitude 36°30" (Britannica.com).

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • What was the only European country conquered by an Islamic Empire?
    11·1 answer
  • What means going without food<br> A.celibacy<br> B.gluttony<br> C.abstaining<br> D.fasting
    15·2 answers
  • Which characteristics did the Roman empire and the Roman republic share? Select all that apply.
    13·1 answer
  • In June of 1981, the CDC discovered this new disease in California among the homosexual population.
    9·2 answers
  • In the United States the largest number of sheep are raised in the _____.
    6·2 answers
  • The term muckraker was used during the progressive era to describe
    12·1 answer
  • One of the most important race tracks in North America, originally built in 1894, goes by what nickname in the horse racing indu
    12·1 answer
  • Which of the following can be linked to Commander Valeriano Weyler?
    11·2 answers
  • Look at my question!! I need your help​
    13·1 answer
  • Democratic Participation UNITE of joe biden.
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!