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katen-ka-za [31]

4 years ago

8

The ______________ states that if, under a given assumption, the probability of a particular observed event is extremely small,

we conclude that the assumption is probably not correct. round off rule range rule of thumb empirical rule rare event rule

1 answer:

Luda [366]4 years ago

7 0

Rare event rule for inferential statistics

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Epiphany Industries is considering a new capital budgeting project that will last for three years. Epiphany plans on using a cos

Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

FCF years 1 is $43,000

NPV is $13,300

Explanation:

The free cash flow for the first year=net income+depreciation-Capital exp

net income is $13,000

depreciation is $30,000

capital exp for the first year is nil

the free cash flow=$13,000+$30,000+$0=$43,000

FCF year zero=-$90,000

the FCF for year1 applies to years 2 and 3 as well

NPV=-$90,000+$43,000/(1+12%)^1+$43,000/(1+12%)^2+$43,000/(1+12%)^3=

$13,278.74

The closest option is $13,300

8 0

4 years ago

Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs.

Mumz [18]

Answer: cost, labor, input, infrastructure

Explanation:this did the test on edmentum

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Why do brands with a large market share spend proportionally less on advertising compared to brands with a small market share? D

Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

because their already known

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

On the first day of its fiscal year, Scooter Co. purchased a computer system for a total cost of $50,000. The computer system is

Gnom [1K]

Answer:

$20000

Explanation:

Given: Total cost of computer system= $50000.

Residual value= $5000.

Useful life= 5 years.

Now, calculating depreciation expense as per double-declining balance method.

$Depreciation\ expense= (cost- Accumlated\ depreciation)\times \frac{2}{useful\ life}$

⇒ $Depreciation\ expense= (\$ 50000- \$0)\times \frac{2}{5}$

⇒ $Depreciation\ expense= \$ 50000\times \frac{2}{5}$

∴ $Depreciation\ expense= \$ 20000$

Hence, $20000 is the depreciation expense for first year as per double-declining balance method.

8 0

3 years ago

On June 30, 2019, bonds were issued at par with a face value of $2,000,000 and a 7% stated interest rate. Each bond has a $1,000

vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

The answer is "$84,000 in the numerator and 60,000 in the denominator".

Explanation:

If securities are transformed into stocks. So, the common stack holder should be have a larger net revenue, calculation of net revenue

$= \$ 2,000,000 \times 7 \% \times (1 - 0.40) \\\\= \$ 2,000,000 \times \frac{7}{100} \times 0.6\\\\= \$ 20,000 \times 7 \times \frac{6}{10}\\\\= \$ 2,000\times 7\times 6\\\\= \$ 2,000 \times 42\\\\= \$ 84,000\\$

In addition, the loads will also raise the total amount of shares which is calculated as follows:

$= \frac{\$ 2,000,000}{ \$ 1,000 \times 30}\\\\= \$ 60,000 \ stocks$

Formula:

$\ EPS =\frac{\ net \ income}{ \ average \ number \ of \ stocks}$

That's why in this question numerator is = $ 84, 000 and denominator = $ 60,000

7 0

3 years ago