1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Llana [10]
3 years ago
13

What was the major goal of the friars and Jesuits who went to the Spanish colonies in the Americas?

History
2 answers:
prohojiy [21]3 years ago
8 0
Converting Native peoples to Catholicism. This was arguably a noble venture in the minds of the colonists - by converting the Natives, they thought, they were saving their souls. Friars and Jesuits, by the way, were both orders of Catholic priests.
SIZIF [17.4K]3 years ago
6 0
C. Converting natives to Catholicism. They intended to convert as many native peoples as possible by setting up missions in the Americas. 
You might be interested in
Give two Factor which let to the magration and settlement of the iteso into kenya by 1800​
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

Increase in population and desire to search for land

8 0
2 years ago
What was accomplished by members of the Second Continental Congress during their meeting in Philadelphia? A. The United States C
Burka [1]
I believe that the answer is A
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why haven't Europeans used Maritime routes before the age of exploration?
slavikrds [6]

The correct answer is 2. They didn't have the ships and navigation skills to travel around Africa to Asia.

The Age of Exploration was only possible as a result of new technology, that is, the inventions of new ships such as caravels or the extensive research of navigation by individuals like Prince Henry the Navigator. These two factors allowed explorers to count on further reliable means of transportation and a better understanding of the geography as well as conditions they would face during their expeditions.



5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which reasons explain the failure of the League of Nations? Select two options
ss7ja [257]
Answer: D is right. But there are also many other reasons.
Explanation: League of Nations was formed by Allied powers (from the WW I) so consequently it was viewed as "League of Victors". Moreover USA did not join, may other states did not join and later on League of Nations was unable the prevent outbreak of WW II.
4 0
3 years ago
Who has the final authority over all military matters?
vivado [14]

The president has the final authority .


7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Why did Martin Luther’s account of his break with the church change between 1517 and 1535
    12·1 answer
  • Which term, borrowed from a type of Italian money, was used to name many early newspapers?
    12·2 answers
  • Who was the fist president in the u.s
    9·2 answers
  • During Mustafa Kemal s time, Turkey was the only remaining piece of the Ottoman Empire and needed to protect itself against take
    11·1 answer
  • How were women affected by US participation<br> in WWII?
    10·2 answers
  • 3.what was the goal of the Lend lease act?
    8·1 answer
  • TIMETOWASTEMYPOINTSFORPEOPLETHATNEEDPOINTS
    11·1 answer
  • Fall semester Study Guide review 1
    9·1 answer
  • How is citizenship in the United States similar to citizenship in ancient Athens?
    14·1 answer
  • In paragraph form explain and identify three reasons for US involvement in World War I. i need it explaned
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!