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Black_prince [1.1K]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following is a general, sustained upward movement of prices for goods and services in an economy? a. Inflation b. E

xpenditures c. Budgets d. Stimulus packages
Business
1 answer:
frosja888 [35]3 years ago
4 0
Inflation can be defined as rise in general price level.
Thus, answer is Inflation
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On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
Do you think a nation’s output should be distributed according to income or according to some other standard (such as basic huma
melomori [17]

Answer:

i think that income is built for order and human need

Explanation:

if we distributed according to human need that's technically a communist country

8 0
3 years ago
Ace Hauling, Inc., has been transporting industrial tailings for companies around the Minneapolis/St. Paul area for the past dec
natulia [17]

Answer: The correct answer is "b. Ace has done nothing to change its CERCLA liability."

Explanation: CERCLA is the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Responsibility Act and was designed to promote cleaning, maintenance and protection of the environment against hazardous waste.

Those responsible for releasing dangerous substances are identified to take care of their cleaning through the superfunds, therefore by creating the new corporation and transferring the assets: Ace has done nothing to change its CERCLA liability.

7 0
4 years ago
lue Inc. has decided to raise additional capital by issuing $171,000 face value of bonds with a coupon rate of 11%. In discussio
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Value assigned to bonds =

Value of bonds without warrants/(value of bonds without warrants+value of warrants)*Issue price

Value assigned to warrants =

Value of warrants/(value of bonds without warrants+Value of warrants)

Value assigned to bonds = 115,200/(115,200+28,800) * 140,000 = 0.8*140,000 = 112,000

Value assigned to warrants = 28,800/144,000 * 140,000 = 28,000

Journal entries:

Dr Cash 140,000

Dr Discount on bonds payable (171,000-112,000) 59,000

Cr Bonds payable 171,000

Cr Paid in capital-Stock warrants 28,000

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Steve, one of the partners in a home improvement company, intends to dissolve the partnership. Before he can give n
bija089 [108]

Answer:

still be liable for Hala's contract.

Explanation:

Any contract entered into by any of the partners, before the dissolution of a partnership business is deemed legal hence binding on the partners. This means that the partners will still be liable for the new contract in line with their partnership status.

Although, before a partnership business can be dissolved, at least one of partners must give a notice of intent. If in the process of giving the notice, another member enters in a new contract, such will be valid and partners will still be held liable because the business has still not been dissolved in the eye of the law.

Any contract entered into by any partner in a partnership business aftet dissution becomes illegal hence not binding on other members.

6 0
4 years ago
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