Answer:
The answer is: C) Investment spending by businesses varies inversely with the interest rate.
Explanation:
This statement is true all the time. When a company evaluates the costs and benefits of an investment, interest rate plays a fundamental part in those calculations. The two basic reasons for that are:
- The higher the interest rate a company (or any individual) has to pay for a loan, the harder it is for the company to repay the loan.
- The interest rate a bank charges is usually correlated to the opportunity cost of an investment. The higher the interest rates banks charge, the higher the internal rate of return (which is used to calculate the Net Present Value of an investment) will be. This is because banks don´t print money, they take in deposits and then they loan the money the someone else. So if the interest rate the bank charges is high, usually the interest rates the bank pays for the deposits is also high. Instead of investing, a company might just put their money on the bank and earn a better return rate.
Answer:
b) surplus; shortage; up; fall
Explanation:
If the bond market and money market start out at equillibrum, and money supply is increased there will be an excess (surplus) of money over bonds.
That is more money to buy less bonds. The relative scarcity of bonds will result in a shortage (bond supply cannot meet demand).
As a result of the shortage price of bonds will increase because more people are looking for the scarce bonds.
Price of bonds has an inverse relationship with interest. As price increases interest rates will fall.
For example consider a zero coupon bond of $1,000, being sold for low price of $850. On maturity it will yield gain of $150.
If the price rises to $950 the yield will only be $50.
So as price increases and interest (yield) decreases, it will no more be attractive to investors and demand will reduce to meet the available supply of bonds.
Answer:
$417 A.
It is an adverse variance.
Explanation:
Fixed factory overhead volume variance is the difference between budgeted output at 100% normal capacity and actual production volume multiplied by standard fixed overhead cost per unit.
Formula
Fixed factory overhead volume variance = (budgeted standard hours for 100% normal capacity - Actual standard output hours) × standard fixed overhead cost per unit.
Calculation
Since 5900 units of a product was produced in 3.546 standard hours per unit, total actual standard hour is therefore;
= 5900×3.546
=20,921 hours
Overhead cost per unit = $1.10 per hour
Hours at 100% normal capacity = 21,300 hours.
Recall the formula for fixed factory overhead volume variance is =(budgeted standard hours for 100% normal output- actual standard output hours)× standard fixed overhead per unit.
Therefore;
Fixed factory overhead volume variance =(21,300 hours - 20,921 hours)× $1.10
=379 hours × $1.10
=$417 A
It is therefore an adverse variance.
Answer:
the value of imports increasing by more than the value of exports at the time of devaluation.
Explanation:
J-curve effect means the starting depreciation effect based on the balance of trade that should be negative also when the imports and the exports adjusted on the long run with respect to the changes made in the prices so the net effect should be positive
So as per the given situation, the above should be the answer
