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Ann [662]
3 years ago
7

Based on the following data, what is the quick ratio, rounded to one decimal point? Accounts payable $ 30,000 Accounts receivabl

e 60,000 Accrued liabilities 5,000 Cash 30,000 Intangible assets 50,000 Inventory 69,000 Long-term investments 80,000 Long-term liabilities 100,000 Marketable securities 30,000 Fixed assets 670,000 Prepaid expenses 1,000 3.0 1.8 2.2 3.4
Business
1 answer:
mojhsa [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 3.4

Explanation:

The Quick ratio is calculated by Dividing Quick Assets by the current Liabilities.

Quick Assets are current assets that are either cash or cash equivalents.

That includes Account Payables, Cash and Marketable securities.

Adding them up,

= 60,000 + 30,000 + 30,000

= $120,000

The Current Liabilities are,

= Accounts Payable + Accrued Liability.

= 30,000 + 5,000

= $35,000

Quick Ratio = Quick Assets / Current Liabilities

Quick ratio= 120,000/ 35,000

Quick Ratio = 3.43

Quick Ratio is 3.4.

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While eating at Alex’s "Pizza by the Slice" restaurant, Clara experiences diminishing marginal utility. She received 10 utils fr
klemol [59]

Answer:

Alex may have to lower the price to convince Clara to buy a second slice.

Explanation:

Marginal utility is an economic concept that says that a consumer recieves more marginal utility in the first consumption of a good or services than in the second and the subsequents. In fact with each consumption the marginal utility reduces, this effect is known as diminishing marginal utility.

One of the the methods to reduce the effects of the diminishing marginal utility is to reduces prices. As the utility of a product decreases as its consumption increases, consumers are willing to pay smaller amount of money for more of the product.

6 0
3 years ago
How can you take advantage of the information on social media sites related to careers you are interested in?
elena-s [515]

It can easily show a lot of the ups and downs to careers that one may be interested. You can see people's personal experiences and how people view the job compared to what it is. You can get a lot of insight which could sway your choice.

3 0
2 years ago
Blake’s Manufacturing sells unfinished wood pieces for $150 each. The manager reported 280 defective wood pieces in inventory, w
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

$30,800

Explanation:

This can be calculated as follows:

Standard price revenue = $150 × 280 = $42,000

Original cost = $20 × 280 = $5,600

Defective sales revenue = $30 × 280 = $8,400

Extra processing cost = $10 × 280 = $2,800

Actual revenue forgo from defective sales = Defective sales revenue - Extra processing cost

Actual revenue forgo from defective sales = $8,400 - $2,800 = $5,600

Total incremental income = Standard price revenue - Original cost - Actual revenue forgo from defective sales

Total incremental income = $42,000 - $5,600 - $5,600 = $30,800

Therefore, the total incremental income from further processing is $30,800.

5 0
3 years ago
Following are several figures reported for Allister and Barone as of December 31, 2018:
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of inventory, sales, cost of goods sold, Operating expenses  and Net income attributable to non-controlling interest  is shown below:-

But before that we need to determine the following calculations

Unrealized profit on inventory = ($172,000 - $126,000) × 10%

= $4,600

Customer list amortization = $70,000 ÷ 4

= $17,500

Inventory = $530,000 + $330,000 - $4,600

= $855,400

Sales = $1,060,000 + $860,000 - $172,000

= $1,748,000

Cost of goods sold = $530,000 + $430,000 + $4,600 - $172,000

= $792,600

Operating expenses = $245,000 + $315,000 + $17,500

= $577,500

Net income attributable to non-controlling interest = 10% × ($860,000 - $430,000 - $315,000 - $4,600 - $17,500)

= 10% × $92,900

= $9,290

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is consistent with a very flat yield curve for government bonds? a) An increasing risk of bond defaults b
Effectus [21]

Answer:

b) Expectations of higher short-term interest rates in the future

Explanation:

When the yield curve is normal (upward sloping) it is because investors expect longer-maturity bonds to have a higher yield than shorter-maturity bonds, since interest rates are expected to rise in the long term.

On the contrary, if the yield curve is flat, it is because short-maturity and long-maturity bonds are giving the same, or almost the same yield, indicating that investors expect short-term interest rates to rise so much, that they compensate the capital gains for short-maturity bonds in terms of interst.

8 0
3 years ago
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