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garik1379 [7]
3 years ago
9

On January 1, 2019, in a merger transaction, Maxi Company paid $371,000 in cash for 100% of the outstanding common stock of Mini

Company. The fair value of Mini Company's plant and equipment was $147,000 on the date of acquisition. If the fair value and book value are the same for Mini's remaining assets and liabilities, what is the net increase in Maxi's assets only, after paying the cash for Mini?
Business
1 answer:
boyakko [2]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$224,000

Explanation:

Goodwill from acquiring Mini Company = Cash consideration paid - Fair value of Mini Company's plant and equipment = $371,000 - $147,000 = $224,000

The net increase in Maxi's assets only after paying the cash for Mini is $224,000 i.e. the goodwill from acquiring Mini Company.

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saul85 [17]

Answer:

a. Economic profit is the excess of revenue over both opportunity (implicit) and explicit costs.  Explicit costs are the cost of all inputs used.

b. The difference between economic profit and accounting profit is that in calculating economic profit, both the explicit costs and the implicit or opportunity costs are deducted from the revenue.  Whereas, in computing the accounting profit, only the explicit costs are deducted from the revenue.

c. Economists measure economic profit rather than accounting profit because economists believe that the real cost of an output includes the economic or opportunity cost (potential benefits lost as a result of the course of action chosen).

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the implicit cost incurred, which is equal to the potential benefits lost by an individual or a business, when an alternative is chosen instead of the other alternative.  It is an important concept in the computation of economic profit.  The concept ensures that both implicit and explicit costs are considered when determining the profits generated by a business.

3 0
3 years ago
Method A assumes simple interest over final fractional periods, while Method B assumes simple discount over final fractional per
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

The answer is "1.1"

Explanation:

In the case of a single Interest, the principal value is determined as follows:

\ I = Prt \\\ A = P + I\\A = P(1+rt) \\\\A = amount \\P= principle\\r = rate\\t= time

In case of discount:

D = Mrt \\P = M - D \\P = M(1-rt)\\\\Where,  D= discount \\M =\  Maturity  \ value \\

Let income amount = 100, time = 1.5 years, and rate =20 %.

Formula:

A = P(1+rt)  

A =P+I

by putting vale in the above formula we get the value that is = 76.92, thus method A will give 76.92  value.

If we calculate discount then the formula is:

P = M(1-rt)

M = 100  rate and time is same as above.

P = 100(1-0.2 \times 1.5) \\P = 100 \times \frac{70}{100} \\P = 70

Thus Method B will give the value that is 70  

calculating ratio value:

ratio = \frac{\ method\  A \ value} {\ method \ B \ value}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = \frac{76.92}{70}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = \frac{7692}{7000}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = 1.098 \ \ \ \  or \ \ \ \  1.

4 0
3 years ago
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Dmitry [639]

Answer:

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The stated example is and example of voluntary work, which by most statutes does not count as labor. Although volunteering is technically work, it does not count as labor as volunteers are not paid for what they do. Instead, they do it for an ethical purpose which is not related to getting money. Therefore, volunteers do not coun as the working labor force.

7 0
3 years ago
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Musya8 [376]

Answer: It should shot down immediately.

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If the market price is equal to average cost at the profit-maximizing level of output, then the firm is making zero profits. If the market price that a perfectly competitive firm faces is below average variable cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output, then the firm should shut down operations immediately.

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allochka39001 [22]
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