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vladimir1956 [14]
3 years ago
9

Solve for x: 3x – 14 = -5x + 2

Mathematics
1 answer:
dalvyx [7]3 years ago
7 0

Hello there!

3x-14=-5x+2

Add 5x to both sides:

3x-14+5x=-5x+2+5x\\8x-14=2

Add 14 to both sides:

8x-14+14=2+14\\8x=16

Now divide both sides by 8:

\frac{8x}{8}=\frac{16}{8}

In our last step, we will simplify 16/8:

\frac{16}{8}=2\\ x=2

Hope this helps!

AT2309

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve the equation below. *<br> b + (-43) = 87
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

b+(-43)=87

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susan received a $70 gift card for a coffee store. she used it in buying some coffee that cost $7.23 per pound. after buying the
diamong [38]
Amount spent on coffee=   $70 - $48.31 = $21.69 

Coffee cost $7.23 per pound

No of pounds of coffee bought =    Amount in $ / Cost in $ per pound
                                         
                                                 = 21.69 / 7.23
                              
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7 0
3 years ago
Consider the probability that fewer than 26 out of 107 cell phone calls will be disconnected. Assume the probability that a give
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

We assume the condition of independence satisifed.

We need to check the following conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=107*0.98=104.86 \geq 10

n(1-p)=107*(1-0.98)=2.14 < 10

So we see that we satisfy the first condition, but the second no so then we can't apply the approximation for this case, since we need both conditions at the same time in order to use the normal approximation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=107, p=0.98)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

We assume the condition of independence satisifed.

We need to check the following conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=107*0.98=104.86 \geq 10

n(1-p)=107*(1-0.98)=2.14 < 10

So we see that we satisfy the first condition, but the second no so then we can't apply the approximation for this case, since we need both conditions at the same time in order to use the normal approximation.

4 0
3 years ago
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