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schepotkina [342]
3 years ago
11

Colgate reported Diluted EPS of $2.38 in accordance with GAAP. How much higher would EPS be if Colgate ignored the impact of res

tructuring and other one-time charges during the period
Business
1 answer:
Lisa [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

EPS will be higher than $2.38

Explanation:

The Earnings per share is the value available to stockholders of the company after the deduction of all the expense and taxes. Restructuring expense are one time expense and they are reported as other operating expenses in the Income Statement. The inclusion of restructuring and other one-time charges in the Income Statement results in lower Earnings before Tax and ultimately reduced net profit. If these cost are excluded the Earning will rise which will give rise to EPS of the company.

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If Dakota Company issues 1,500 shares of $6 par common stock for $75,000,
HACTEHA [7]

<u>Answer:Option C </u>Paid-In Capital in Excess of Par will be credited for $66,000

<u>Explanation:</u>

Given

No of shares 1,500

Par value $6

Common stock $75,000

Par value of stock = No of shares x Par value

=1500 x 6

=9,000

Excess paid in capital = Common stock - Par value

=75000-9000

=$66,000

So the Paid in capital which is excess of par value will be credited. It can also be termed as the market value of the shares. Par value will be mentioned in the share document. When there is additional paid in capital it is a credit balance in company accounts.

5 0
3 years ago
In 2013, Salvage Yard Inc. had cash flows from investing activities of ($250,000) and cash flows from financing activities of ($
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

$415,000

Explanation:

Following is the formula for cash flow:

<em>Ending Cash Balance = CFO + CFI + CFF + Beginning Cash Balance</em>

<em>CFO = Cash flow from operating activities</em>

<em>CFI = Cash flow from investing activities</em>

<em>CFF = Cash flow from financing activities</em>

We can easily rearrange the formula to find CFO

<em>Ending Cash Balance - CFI - CFF - Beginning Cash Balance = CFO </em>

<em>or </em>

<em>CFO = Ending Cash Balance - CFI - CFF - Beginning Cash Balance</em>

<u>Solution</u>

CFO=105000-(-250000)-(-150000)-90000

<em>CFO = $415,000</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company currently pays a dividend of $2.8 per share (D0 = $2.8). It is estimated that the company's dividend will grow at a ra
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Intrinsic value: 53.41 dollars

Explanation:

First, we use the CAPM model to know the value of the stock

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

risk free 0.085

premium market =(market rate - risk free) = 0.045

beta(non diversifiable risk) 1.3

Ke= 0.085 + 1.3 (0.045)  

Ke 0.14350

Now we need to know the present value of the future dividends:

D0 = 2.8

D1 = D0 x (1+g) = 2.8 * 1.23 = 3.444

D2 3.444 x 1.23 = 4.2361200

The next dividends, which are at perpetuity will we solve using the dividned grow model:

\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value

In this case dividends will be:

4.23612 x 1.07 = 4.5326484

return will be how return given by CAPM and g = 7%

plug this into the Dividend grow model.

\frac{4.5326484}{0.1435 - 0.07} = Intrinsic \: Value

value of the dividends at perpetity: 61.6686857

FInally is important to note this values are calculate in their current year. We must bring them to present day using the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

\frac{3.444}{(1 + 0.1435)^{1} } = PV

3.011805859

\frac{4.23612}{(1 + 0.1435)^{2} } = PV

3.239633762

\frac{61.6686857}{(1 + 0.1435)^{2}} = PV

47.16201531

We add them and get the value of the stock:

53.413455

5 0
3 years ago
Answer following question with true or false and explain.A firm's profit margin is 5%, its debt/assets ratio is 56%, and its div
maria [59]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

As a company's sales level increases, its current assets will increase, e.g. cash, inventories, accounts receivables increase. generally, also the fixed assets increase, specially if the firm was previous producing at full capacity even before total sales increased. But as sales increase, not only do the company's assets increase, its current liabilities generally increase also, and its profits should increase. In this case, 60% of the company's profits are reinvested in the company, and the liabilities represent more than half of the total assets. Therefore, it is possible that the company needs external financing, but it is also possible that it doesn't. You cannot assume that the company will necessarily need external financing, because retained earnings  and the increase in current liabilities might be enough to finance the company's growth in sales.

8 0
3 years ago
What is a consequence of ending a performance appraisal interview on a negative note? Both the supervisor and employee may devel
Ahat [919]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": The employee whose performance was appraised may develop a deflated ego.

Explanation:

Appraisal interviews are conducted to discuss the performance of employees. The company sets a standard of how the duties of workers must be developed and employees are evaluated based on those guidelines. The closer the employee method or woking is to the company's standards, the possibilities of scoring higher increase.

However, not all employees end up with a good score after appraisals. <em>Those who are provided with negative notes typically develop a deflated ego since their performance was qualified as lacking. Managers must follow up on these workers to make sure they are not discouraged and that they accomplish the objectives their roles demand.</em>

4 0
4 years ago
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