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kakasveta [241]
4 years ago
12

A client believes that XYZZ stock has bottomed in price and is ready for a steep rebound. What recommendation would give the cli

ent the smallest profit if this occurs?
Business
1 answer:
san4es73 [151]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D) Buy XYZZ stock and sell an XYZZ call

Explanation:

If the buyer is convinced that XYZZ stock has bottomed its price he should buy that stock since it's the cheapest it will get.

If he believes that XYZZ's price will soon rebound, then he should not sell a call option for XYZZ. f he sells a call option then his earnings will be very limited, since the price set at the call option will not be very high.

He should keep XYZZ stock for a while and wait for its price to rebound.

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In one of the training sessions in your company, you notice several members are not from the United States. These members are al
Alja [10]

Answer:

Go-round

Explanation:

It is not uncommon that some people can be reticent and not contributing to discussion during a session. This does not mean that such people do not have anything to contribute but may just be shy .

One technique to encourage these members to express their opinion is by employing the go - round discussion method. This can give them the courage to voice their opinion when it is their turn to speak

5 0
3 years ago
A company has bonds outstanding with a par value of $100,000. The unamortized premium on these bonds is $2,700. If the company r
Lunna [17]

Answer:e. $3,700 gain.

Explanation:

Par value of Bonds =$100,000    

Unamortized premium= $2,700    

Carrying/ Book value of bonds=  Par value of Bonds +Unamortized premium

= $100,000 + $2,700 =$102,700    

Amount at which bonds retired $100,000 x 99% = $99,000  

Gain on retirement of bonds =Book value of bonds- Amount at which bonds retired

=$102,700- $99,000 = $3,700

4 0
3 years ago
The journal entry to record the use of utilities in a factory could include which two of the following: (You may select more tha
evablogger [386]

Answer:

The correct options are:

A. Debit to Factory Overhead

D. Credit to Factory Utilities Payable

Explanation:

The debit entry of the use of utilities in  a factory would be recorded in factory overhead since cost of utilities is a not a direct factory cost.

However, the corresponding credit would be in the factory utilities payable as an obligation awaiting payment to be made to  the supplier of  the service being enjoyed by the factory in order to run on daily basis

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Frankie's Chocolate Co. reports the following information from its sales budget: Expected Sales: July $ 90,000 August 110,000 Se
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

$112,500

Explanation:

                                                 July       August         September  October

Credit Sales(90000*75%)       67,500  

                   (110,000*75%)                       82,500

                   (120,000*75%)                                          90,000

Cash Sales (120,000*25%                                            30,000

<em>Total Cash expected to be collected in September will be;</em>

Credit Sales of August      $82,500

Cash  Sales of September $30,000

Total cash expected to be collected in September =$112,500

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ms. Pay, who has a 40.8 percent marginal tax rate on interest income (37 percent income tax 3.8 percent Medicare contribution ta
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

After tax cash flow    $44,281.60

After tax cash flow   ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow   $8856.32

Explanation:

In the first case when the interest income of $74,800 ,the after-tax cash flow would be taxed as follows"

before tax cash flow   $74,800.00

tax at 40.8%*$74,800 ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow      $44,281.60  

If the entire interest income is re-invested after tax cash flow is computed thus:

before tax cash flow   $0

tax at 40.8%*$74,800 ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow      ($30,518.40)

If the entire interest income represents the original  issue discount,which is the difference between the face value and the issue price,after tax cash  flow is computed thus:

The OID is taxable as if it accrues over the duration of the investment(bonds),hence a portion of the OID would be assessed to tax each year (assume the duration of investment is 5 years)

Annual portion of OID=$74,800/5

before tax cash flow    $14,960 .00

tax at 40.8%*$74,800  ($6103.68 )

After tax cash flow         $8856.32

After tax cash flow      $44,281.60  

3 0
3 years ago
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