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Ganezh [65]
3 years ago
11

Which type of marketing channel arrangement is especially good for a firm to use in global marketing where the creation of marke

ting channel relationships is expensive and time consuming?
A.dual distribution
B.cooperative distribution
C.strategic channel alliance
D.global distribution alliance
E.multichannel distribution
Business
1 answer:
Rudik [331]3 years ago
5 0

C. Strategic channel alliance is a marketing channel arrangement is especially good for a firm to use in global marketing where the creation of marketing channel relationships is expensive and time consuming.

When you are in a strategic alliance or strategic partnership, you have an agreement between one another for objectives to be accomplished but still operating as independent entities. When one company partners with another company, knowledge and resources are usually gained to where one or both parties benefit.

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Corporate Fund started the year with a net asset value (NAV) of $12.50. By year-end, its NAV equaled $12.10. The fund paid year-
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

The rate of return to an investor in the fund=0.088*100=8.80%

Explanation:

Given Data:

NVA at the start of the year=(NAV)_o=$12.50

NVA at the end of the year=(NAV)_f$12.10

Distributions of income and capital gains =$1.50

Required:

The rate of return to an investor in the fund=?

Solution:

Rate of return=\frac{(NAV)_f+\ Distributions}{(NAV)_o}-1

Rate\ of\ return=\frac{12.10+1.50}{12.50}-1 \\Rate\ of\ return=0.088

The rate of return to an investor in the fund=0.088*100=8.80%

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following transactions or events would have no immediate effect on the times interest earned ratio but will cause d
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

b. issuing new equity

Explanation:

debt to equity ratio = Total debt/ Total equity x 100

and

interest earned ratio = Operating Income ÷ Interest charge

<u>Ways to decrease debt to equity ratio :</u>

1. Increase equity (no effect on interest earned ratio)

2. Decrease debt (increases interest earned ratio)

thus,

issuing new equity have no immediate effect on the times interest earned ratio but will cause debt to equity ratio to decrease.

7 0
2 years ago
Two months ago, Lisa was honorably discharged from the Air Force where she spent four years training as an airplane mechanic. Af
Colt1911 [192]

Answer:

The maximum mortgage payment (PITI) a lender would allow for a conventional loan based on the housing expense ratio is:

$1,506.40

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Lisa works 40 hours at $18 an hour

Lisa weekly income = 40 * $18 = $720

Lisa monthly income = 40 *$18 * 4 = $2,880

Dave weekly income = $625

Dave's monthly income = $625 * 4 = 2,500

Total joint monthly income =            $5,380

b) If Lisa and Dave, her husband, file jointly for taxes, then the maximum mortgage payment (PITI) they can make is 28% of the gross income.

Therefore PITI = $5,380 * 28% = $1,506.40

c) The housing expense ratio is the percentage of your gross monthly income devoted to housing expenses, which should not exceed 36% of your monthly or annual gross income.  According to the general rule, the household expense payments, primarily rent or mortgage payments, cannot exceed more than 28% of the monthly or annual income.

7 0
3 years ago
after the federal reserve buys bonds, the interest rate changes and aggregate expenditures change, the following will most likel
PIT_PIT [208]

The next thing to occur would be B. the price level in the economy will rise and the money demand will decrease

<h3>What is Interest Rate? </h3>

This refers to the amount of money that is added to be paid back on the settlement of a loan.

Hence, we can see that after the federal reserve buys bonds, the interest rate changes and aggregate expenditures change, thus will cause the price level in the economy will rise and the money demand will decrease

Read more about bonds here:

brainly.com/question/25965295

#SPJ11

6 0
2 years ago
After the issuance of its year 1 financial statements, Serenity Inc. discovered a computational error of $150,000 in the calcula
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer: C. $150,000 credit

Explanation:

In the financial statements for year 2, it should be noted that the year 1 retained earnings balance, should be adjusted by $150,000 credit.

The corrections of errors should be treated as the period adjustments before. In this case, the $150,000 overstatement for the cost of goods that was sold in the previous year, will then be credited to the beginning balance of the retained earnings.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

4 0
2 years ago
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