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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
4 years ago
12

Each of Boggart’s production managers (annual salary cost, $45,000) can oversee 60,000 machine hours of manufacturing activity.

Thus, if the company has 50,000 hours of manufacturing activity, one manager is needed; for 75,000 hours, two managers are needed; for 125,000 hours, three managers are needed; and so forth. Boggart’s salary cost can best be described as a:
1.variable cost.
2.semivariable cost.
3.step-variable cost.
4.fixed cost.
5.step-fixed cost.
Business
1 answer:
givi [52]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

5.step-fixed cost.

Explanation:

A fixed cost which does not change up to a certain level of activity and changes is when a level of activity is achieved. This cost increase on specific point and then remains fix and this process may repeat. In this question Salaries of oversee mangers are the step-fixed cost. Because it remained same until the Manufacturing hours goes upto 50,000, increases at this point and then remains same upto 75,000 and so on.

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Kiley Corporation had these transactions during 2017. Analyze the transactions and indicate whether each transaction is an opera
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Explanation:

The cash flow statement includes three types of activities which are listed below:

1. Operating activities: This involves all transactions that after net income impact the working capital. It would subtract the rise in current assets and a reduction in current liabilities, while adding the decline in current assets and an increase in current liabilities.

It would moderate those shifts in working capital. For addition, the depreciation cost is applied to the net income, and the loss on asset sales is added while the benefit on asset sales is deducted

2. Investing activities:  it tracks operations that include buying and selling long-term properties. The buying is a cash outflow whereas the sale is a cash inflow

3. Financing operations or activities : it monitors transactions that have an impact on long-term debt and equity balance of shareholders. Share issue is cash inflow while redemption and dividend is cash outflow.

So, the categorization is shown below:

A) Purchased a machine for $30,000, giving a long-term note in exchange. = non-cash investing and financing activity as it does not involved any cash transaction

B) Issued $50,000 par value common stock for cash = Cash inflow and come under the financing activities

C) Issued $200,000 par value common stock upon conversion of bonds having a face value of $200,000. = non - cash financing activities as it does not involved any cash transaction

D) Declared and paid a cash dividend of $13,000.= Cash outflow and come under the  financing activities

E) Sold a long-term investment with a cost of $15,000 for $15,000 cash. = Cash inflow and come under the  investing activities

F) Collected $16,000 from sale of goods = Cash inflow and come under the  operating activities

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7 0
4 years ago
Halliford Corporation expects to have earnings this coming year of per share. Halliford plans to retain all of its earnings for
STatiana [176]

Answer:

P₀ = $59.45

Explanation:

the numbers are missing so I looked for a similar question:

  • expected EPS = $2.775
  • retain 0% of earnings (years 1 - 2)
  • retain 48% of earnings (years 3 - 4)
  • then retain 23%
  • expected return on new projects = 22.4%
  • Re = 10.7%

growth rate = retention rate x return on new projects

g₁ = not given                                       EPS₁ = $2.775  

g₂ = 1 x 22.4% = 22.4%                        EPS₂ = $3.3966

g₃ = 1 x 22.4% = 22.4%                        EPS₃ = $4.1574

g₄ = 0.48 x 22.4% = 10.752%              EPS₄ = $4.6044

g₅ = 0.48 x 22.4% = 10.752%              EPS₅ = $5.0995

g₆ = 0.23 x 22.4% = 5.152%                EPS₆ = $5.3622

dividend payout ratio                            expected dividend

year 1 = 0                                                   $0

year 2 = 0                                                  $0

year 3 = 0.52                                             $2.1618

year 4 = 0.52                                             $2.3943

year 5 = 0.77                                              $3.9266

year 6 = 0.77                                              $4.1289

since the growth rate became constant at year 6, we can find the terminal value for year 5:

terminal value year 5 = $4.1289 / (10.7 - 5.152%) = $74.4214

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Answer:

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Answer:

Bottleneck items.

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Bottleneck Items are products that that can only be acquired from one supplier or their delivery is otherwise unreliable and have a relative low impact on the financial results.

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