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yKpoI14uk [10]
3 years ago
15

An investment projects requires that a company incurs maintenance in the second year. Under the net present value method, the co

st of maintenance should be treated as:Multiple Choice
a. one-time cash outflow.
b. one-time cash inflow.
c. annual cash outflow.
d. annual cash inflow.
Business
1 answer:
ycow [4]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Pretty sure its a I am not sure however

Explanation:

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Recession, inflation, and high interest rates are economic events that are best characterized as being a. systematic risk factor
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": among the factors that are responsible for market risk.

Explanation:

Market risk is the threat of an investment value falling due to factors that affect all market-wide investments. Investors always take on a certain level of risk. There is always the risk that their investments do not achieve expected returns. The risk falls into two categories: <em>Systematic risk </em>and <em>Unsystematic Risk. </em>

<em>Interest rates fluctuations, recession, and inflation are considered market risks.</em>

3 0
2 years ago
Investors and creditors are particularly interested in this financial statement because it tells them what is happening to the c
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]
Answer: D. balance sheet.
3 0
3 years ago
Waterway Industries had net income for 2021 of $602000. The average number of shares outstanding for the period was 208000 share
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

Diluted earnings per share is $2.87

Explanation:

The extent to which the option would dilute the earnings per share to the extent of the difference between the option of price and the share market price.

The shares that are capable of dilute the earnings can be computed thus:

Market price-option price/market price*outstanding options shares

market price is $36

option price is $30

outstanding options shares is 12,600

($36-$30)/$36*12,600=2,100 shares

Diluted earnings per share=$602,000/(208,000+2100)=$2.87

5 0
3 years ago
Garland Company received proceeds of $235000 on 10-year, 6% bonds issued on January 1, 2018. The bonds had a face value of $2500
Lerok [7]

Answer:

$238000

Explanation:

The computation of the carrying value of the bond is shown below:

Given that

Face Value of Bonds = $250,000

Proceeds from issuance of bonds = $235,000

Before that we need to compute the following things

Now

Discount on Bonds Payable = Face Value of Bonds - Proceeds from issuance of bonds

= $250,000 - $235,000

= $15,000

Life of Bonds = 10 years

Now

Discount on Bonds amortized annually = Discount on Bonds Payable ÷ Life of Bonds

= $15,000 ÷ 10

= $1,500

Now

Discount amortized is

= Discount on Bonds amortized annually × expired life

= $1,500 × 2

= $3,000

Finally

Carrying Value of Bonds = Issue Price + Discount amortized

= $235,000 + $3.000

= $238,000

5 0
3 years ago
Lili spent $120 on a new sweater rather than using this money to buy her personal finance textbooks. The cost of doing without t
Serjik [45]

Answer:

opportunity cost

Explanation:

The opportunity cost is the cost that is incurred for purchasing any other thing in place of one thing or we can say it is a sacrification done to purchase another thing

Here in the question it is mentioned that the Lil spent $120 for purchasing a new sweater instead of buying her finance textbooks also the cost of buying the sweater is known as the non doing textbooks cost

So here it is a opportunity cost

5 0
3 years ago
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