Is (p∨q)∨(q→p) a tautology, contradiction, or neither?
1 answer:
Make a truth table, let A = pVq, B =q->p
p q A B AVB
0 0 0 1 1
0 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
Since it is True for every possible state of p and q, then it is a tautology.
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