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professor190 [17]
3 years ago
15

A company has $90,000 in outstanding accounts receivable and it uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts.

Experience suggests that 4% of outstanding receivables are uncollectible. The current balance (before adjustments) in the allowance for doubtful accounts is an $800 CREDIT. The journal entry to record the adjustment to the allowance account includes a debit to Bad Debts Expense for:
A. $2,800
B. $3,568
C. $3,632
D. $3,600
E. $4,400

Business
2 answers:
Kaylis [27]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A. $2,800

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Amount assessed to be uncollectible

= 4% × $90,000

= $3,600

Additional Amount to be allowed for

= $3,600 - $800

= $2,800

This will be posted as debit to bad debt and a credit to allowance for doubtful debts account.

Katyanochek1 [597]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$2,800

Explanation:

check the picture attached below for explanation

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assume that two firms are both following generally accepted accounting principles. both firms commenced operations two years ago
Igoryamba

The statement is False as when the balance sheets for the two companies are submitted to investors, they are not obligated to disclose the same amount of net fixed assets.

The Property, Plant, and Equipment classification is used to categorize fixed assets on a company's balance sheet. The cost of fixed assets is decreased on the balance sheet by depreciating them over the course of their useful lives in order to account for wear and tear. Both firms started off with $1 million worth of identical fixed assets when they first opened their doors two years ago, and neither one has sold or added any new ones. So, they are not supposed to report the same amount of fixed assets to investors since there is an absence of asset purchases.

Both current assets and fixed assets are listed on the balance sheet, with current assets intended for use immediately or for cash conversion and fixed assets for longer-term usage (more than one year).

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8 0
1 year ago
Which of the following are payments to ensure receiving the standard treatment that a business ought to receive from a foreign g
Romashka [77]

Answer:

Grease payments, Option A, are payments to ensure receiving the standard treatment that a business ought to receive from a foreign government, but might not due to the obstruction of a foreign official

Explanation:

Grease payment is like a bribe which is usually small in amount and is provided to a government official or to a businessman with the aim of expediting a business decision. It may also be used in case any shipment or any transaction needs to be expedited.  

Grease payments do not change the result of the foreign official's decision, under FCPA. If it changes the consequence, then it is considered a bribe. In that case, grease payments become illegal. It also depends on the amount given to the official and their frequency to decide if it is illegal.

7 0
3 years ago
An airport needs a modern material handling system for facilitating access to and from a busy maintenance hangar. A​ second-hand
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

The second hand machine should be chosen given that the NPV value is lower than that of the new system

Explanation:

cost of second hand system = $75,000

cost of  new system = $150,000

New system can decrease labor hours by 20%

number of useful life ( for both systems ) = 5 years

market value of second hand system after 5 years = $20,000

market value of new system after 5 years = $50,000

Second hand system can operate for 8 hours/day for 20 days = 8*20 = 160 hours per month = 1920 hours per year

labor cost = $40 per hour

MARR = 1% per month

<u> Determine the system that should be recommended</u>

we have to calculate the NPV for both options

for Option 1 ( second hand system )

labor cost = 40 * 1920 = $76800

cost of purchase = $75,000

MARR = 12% p.a.

residual value = $20000

First step : calculate the PV of maintenance cost = $76800× PVAF(12%, 5 years) = $276864

Next : calculate the PV of residual value =$20000× PVF(12%, 5th year)

= $11340

NPV = (75000 + 276864 - 11340 ) = $340,524

for Option 2 ( New Machine )

Labor cost = ( 1920 × 0.8 )hours ×40  = $61440

cost of machine = $150000

Pv of labor cost = 61440×3.605  = $221491.20

Residual value = $50,000

Hence ; PV of residual value = 50000 × 0.567 = $28350

Finally calculate the NPV = (150000+221491.20-28350) = $343,141.20

7 0
3 years ago
Ann Chovies, owner of the Perfect Pasta Pizza Parlor, uses 20 pounds of pepperoni each day in preparing pizzas. Order costs for
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Order costs for pepperoni = $10.00 per order

Carrying costs = 4 cents per pound per day

Lead time for each order = 3 days

Pepperoni itself costs = $3.00 per pound

Total Order = 80 pounds of pepperoni

Demand rate = 20

Total ordering cost = Total order × cost per order

                                = 80 × $10

                                = $800

Length of an order cycle:

=\frac{Order\ quantity}{Demand\ rate}

=\frac{80}{20}

= 4 days

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3 years ago
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Bezzdna [24]
The choice that does not describe the balance sheet is D. The balance sheet contains only assets and liabilities sections.

Balance sheet is one of a company's financial statement. It is also known as the statement of financial position. It represents the the company's financial position at the end of a specified date.

The assets, liabilities, and owner's equity sections of the balance sheet reflects the results of multiple transactions creating an image of a business in financial terms.


6 0
3 years ago
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