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ozzi
4 years ago
7

Michael Corporation is evaluating a capital investment opportunity. This project would require an initial investment of $36,000

to purchase equipment. The equipment will have a residual value at the end of its life of $5000. The useful life of the equipment is 4 years. The new project is expected to generate additional net cash inflows of $19,000 per year for each of the four years. Michael's required rate of return is 10%. The net present value of this project is closest to:
Business
1 answer:
Romashka [77]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$27,645

Explanation:

The computation of the net present value is shown below

Net Present value = Present value of cash inflow + Present value of residual value - Initial investment

= $19,000 × 3.170 + $5,000 × 0.683 - $36,000

= $27,645

The 3.170 is the PVIFA factor for 4 years at 10% and the discount factor for 4 year at 10% is 0.683 and we considered the same

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Assume the bid rate of an Australian dollar is $0.60 while the ask rate is $0.61 at Bank Q. Assume the bid rate of an Australian
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

$16,393.44

Explanation:

Calculation for what would be your gain

Gain=$1,000,000/($0.61 per AUD)*$0.62 per AUD - $1,000,000

Gain=1,639,344*$0.62 per AUD - $1,000,000

Gain=$16,393.44

Therefore what would be your gain if you use $1,000,000 and execute locational arbitrage will be $16,393.44

3 0
3 years ago
Zanny Moldings has the following estimated costs for the upcoming year:
Sloan [31]

Answer:

D) $31.

Explanation:

The computation of the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:  

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead ÷ estimated direct labor hours

where,

Estimated manufacturing overhead is

= Salary of factory supervisor + Heating and lighting costs for factory + Depreciation on factory equipment

= $37,600 + $22,000 + $5,600

= $65,200

And, the direct labor hours is 2,100

So, the predetermined overhead rate is

= $65,200 ÷ 2,100

= $31

5 0
3 years ago
Please answer this!!! Can someone get traced and arrested for taking money out of someone else’s bank electronically account wit
Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

cause you still did fraud

3 0
3 years ago
The marginal benefit Bob gets from purchasing a third pair of gloves is Select one:_____.
babymother [125]

Answer:

d. the total benefit he gets from purchasing four pairs of gloves minus the total benefit he gets from purchasing three pairs of gloves.

Explanation:

Marginal benefits refer to the additional gains obtained by the sales, purchase, or manufacture of an extra unit. It the advantage associated with buying or selling one more unit. Marginal benefit is compared with the marginal cost to determine if continuous production is profitable.

Since marginal benefits are associated with an extra item, obtaining the value of the additional items must exclude the previous units. In this case, getting the marginal benefit of the fourth item can be calculated by adding up the gains of all the four gloves then subtracting the gains of the first three.

6 0
4 years ago
Concord Company had bonds outstanding with a maturity value of $311,000. On April 30, 2017, when these bonds had an unamortized
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

<u>Redemption of Old Bonds</u>

4-30-17   Bonds Payable                              $311000 Dr

              Loss on Bond Redemption           $26550 Dr

                       Discount on Bonds Payable        $11000 Cr

                       Cash                                                $326550 Cr

<u>Issuance of New Bonds</u>

3-30-17   Cash                                                 $314110 Dr

                     Premium on Bonds Payable            $3110 Cr

                     Bonds Payable                                  $311000 Cr

Explanation:

<u>Redemption of Bonds Payable</u>

The maturity value for bonds payable is equal to the face value of these bonds. This means that the face value of old bonds was $311000.

The bonds were carrying a discount. Thus, the carrying value of bonds was

Carrying value = Face value - Discount

Carrying value = 311000 - 11000    =  $300000

Bonds with a carrying value of $300000 were redeemed at 105% of the face value. The cash paid for redemption is,

Cash paid = 311000 * 105%  =  326550

Thus, there was a loss on redemption of = 326550  -  300000  = $26550

<u />

<u />

<u>Issuance of Bonds Payable</u>

The bonds were issued at 101% of the face value which means they were issued at a premium.

The amount of premium on these bonds is,

Premium = Carrying value - Face value

Premium = 311000 * 101%  - 311000  

Premium = $3110

3 0
4 years ago
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