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blagie [28]
4 years ago
15

Suppose that a certain country has an "MPC of 0.8 and a real GDP of $500 billion. If its investment spending decreases by $10 bi

llion, what will be its new level of real GDP?"
Business
1 answer:
Natalka [10]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<em>$450 billion</em>

Explanation:

<em>GDP</em>

The GDP is the total market value of goods and services produced in a country in a given period. It can be determined by adding expenditures made by the government, household, firms and the net export.

<em>Multiplier</em>

The real GDP value will change if there is a change in any of the components that make it up. However, a $ change in its autonomous expenditure will produce more than a proportionate change in the real GDP. The is the called the <em>multiplier effect.</em> The greater amount by which the real GDP will change as a result of a change in any of its components is called the <em>multiplier- it is usually a figure. </em>It is calculated with the formula below:

The multiplier = 1/(1-MPC)

The multiplier figure depends on the MPC as shown above. The MPC is the portion spent from any additional income earned. If I spent only $60 out of a $100 increase in my income, then MPC is 0.6.

<em>Change in real GDP</em>

The maximum amount by which the real GDP will change can be ascertained by the formula below:

Maximum change in real GDP = Multiplier × change in expenditure

<em>Decrease in real GDP</em> = 1/(1-0.8)  × 10 = $50

<em>The new level of GDP </em>= Initial GDP - decrease in GDP

                                   = $500- $50= $450

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mixas84 [53]

Answer:

the formula to calculate yield to maturity (YTM) is:

YTM = [C + (F - P)/n] / [(F + P)/2]          

  • F = face value
  • P = market price
  • n = number of years x 2 =
  • C = coupon      

the formula to calculate yield to call (YTC) is:

YTC = [C + (F - CP)/n] / [(F + CP)/2]      

  • F = face value
  • CP = call price
  • n = number of years x 2 =
  • C = coupon      

the formula to calculate current yield is:

Current yield = C / P

  • C = coupon
  • P = market price

A)

25 year bond, $1,000 face value, semiannual coupons, 11%, call price $1,025, market price $1,150:

YTM = [C + (F - P)/n] / [(F + P)/2]          

  • F = 1,000
  • P = 1,150
  • n = number of years x 2 = 25 x 2 = 50
  • C = 55      

YTM = [55 + (1,000 - 1,150)/50] / [(1,000 + 1,150)/2] =  [55 - 3] / 1,075 = 0.04837 or 4.84%  

YTC = [C + (F - CP)/n] / [(F + CP)/2]      

  • F = 1,000
  • CP = 1,025
  • n = number of years x 2 = 5 x 2 = 10
  • C = 55      

YTC = [55 + (1,000 - 1,025)/10] / [(1,000 + 1,025)/2] = [55 -2.50] / [1,012.50] = 0.05185 or 5.19%

Current yield = C / P

  • C = 55
  • P = 1,150

Current yield = 55 / 1,150 = 0.0478 or 4.78%

The highest value is the Yield to Call (5.19%) while the lowest value is the current yield (4.78%). Since the bonds were sold at a premium, the coupon rate is higher than the market rate, therefore, it is likely that the company will actually call them. So we should use the yield to call value.

B)

25 year bond, $1,000 face value, semiannual coupons, 11%, call price $1,025, market price $800:

YTM = [C + (F - P)/n] / [(F + P)/2]          

  • F = 1,000
  • P = 800
  • n = number of years x 2 = 25 x 2 = 50
  • C = 55      

YTM = [55 + (1,000 - 800)/50] / [(1,000 + 800)/2] =  [55 + 4] / 900 = 0.06555 or 6.56%  

YTC = [C + (F - CP)/n] / [(F + CP)/2]      

  • F = 1,000
  • CP = 1,025
  • n = number of years x 2 = 5 x 2 = 10
  • C = 55      

YTC = [55 + (1,000 - 1,025)/10] / [(1,000 + 1,025)/2] = [55 -2.50] / [1,012.50] = 0.05185 or 5.19%

Current yield = C / P

  • C = 55
  • P = 800

Current yield = 55 / 800 = 0.06875 or 6.88%

The highest value is the current yield (6.88%) while the lowest value is the Yield to Call (5.19%). Since the bonds were sold at a discount, the coupon rate is lower than the market rate, therefore, it is not likely that the company will actually call them. So we should use the yield to maturity value.

5 0
3 years ago
suppose the mpc in an economy is 0.95. the apc is initially 0.55 and disposable income is $6 billion. if disposable income incre
gregori [183]

The new level of saving is 12.8 billion for the mpc economy.

Setting a baseline consumption rate will be the first step. By dividing consumption by income, which results in 0.9 = C / 4 billion and a consumption value of 3.8 billion for an income of 4 billion, you can get the average inclination to consume.

Calculate the change in consumption, on the other hand. The marginal propensity to spend is determined by dividing the change in consumption by the change in income, keep that in mind. You obtain 0.9 = C/10bn as a result, changing your income by 9bn. Consumption rises by 9 billion as a result, reaching a new record of 9 plus 3.8 billion, or 12.8 billion.

Learn more about income at

brainly.com/question/16055983?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
The following data are given for Bahia Company: Budgeted production (at 100% of normal capacity) 1,000 units Actual production 9
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

Fixed overhead volume variance   $540   unfavorable

Explanation:

<em>The fixed overhead volume variance is the difference between the budgeted and actual production volume multiplied by the standard fixed production overhead rate per unit.</em>

Overhead absorption rate = Budgeted Fixed overhead/Budgeted units

                                            = 27,000/1000 =$27 per unit

                                                               Unit

Budgeted production                         1000

Actual production                              <u> 980</u>

Volume variance                                  20

Standard fixed overhead cost           $<u>27</u>

Fixed overhead volume variance       <u> $540</u>   unfavorable

5 0
3 years ago
A news release for a diet product company reports: There's good news for the 65 million Americans currently on a diet. Its study
dexar [7]

Answer:

C. biased, understating the effectiveness of the diet.

Explanation:

As the company promises the population of America which is too huge, just on the study based on 20 employees of the company itself.

This clearly means that the company is trying to sell the product with false reports as the sample size of study is to small to represent entire American Population.

Further that too the employees could be influenced to get the false results.

As since the employees could be influenced and that the results can be altered accordingly, the report is biased, and is misleading.

6 0
3 years ago
The following amounts were reported by Burke Company before adjusting its immaterial overapplied manufacturing overhead of $8,00
Alex_Xolod [135]

Answer:$722,000

Explanation:

The over applied overhead of $8000 is deducted from cost of goods sold of $730,000.

3 0
3 years ago
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