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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
10

Which is the best way to avoid market risks?

Business
1 answer:
hjlf3 years ago
3 0

Not trying to sale to the wrong company or risking on a single product of some sort.
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The buyer and seller of merchandise must agree on who is responsible for paying freight terms. Show your understanding of freigh
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

c,d and e

Explanation:

The correct statements given in the options are as stated below:

(c)-Terms FOB shipping point means the buyer accepts ownership when the goods depart the seller's place of business.

<em>This is true because Free on Board shipping means that the seller bears no liability whatsoever once the goods are shipped.</em>

(d)-When the shipping costs are the responsibility of the buyer, then the Merchandise Inventory account is debited for the freight charges.

<em>This is true because Free on Board shipping means that the seller bears no liability whatsoever once the goods are shipped, hence the shipping costs are the buyers responsibility and will form part of the costs of the goods</em>

(e)-Revenue for the sale will be recorded after the goods reach their destination, if the goods are shipped FOB destination.

<em>This is true because Free on Board destination means that the seller bears all liability whatsoever till the goods are delivered, hence the revenue for the goods can only be recognized upon successful delivery</em>

7 0
4 years ago
The 2018 income statement of Adrian Express reports sales of $20,510,000, cost of goods sold of $12,550,000, and net income of $
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

1. Gross profit ratio= Gross Profit/ Sales *100    

-Sales $ 20510,000      

-Gross Profit = Sales - Cost of Goods Sold  =20,510,000 - 12,550,000 = 7,960,000  

Gross Profit Ratio= 7,960,000 / 20,510,000 * 100

= 38.81%

2.Return on Assets= Net income after tax / Average Total assets  

Where Average Total assets= (9,800,000+8,160,000) / 2= 8,980,000

Where Net income after tax= 1,940,000

Return on Assets = 1,940,000 / 8,980,000 * 100 = 21.60%

3.Profit Margin= Net income/ Sales *100    

=1,940,000 /20,510,000 *100

= 9.46%    

4. Total Assets turnover= Sales / Average assets    

=20,510,000 / 8,980,000

=2.28 times  

5 Return on Equity: Net income after tax/ Average stockholder's equity  

Where Average Stockholder's equity: (2,050,000 +3,190,000 + 1990000 + 1766000) / 2 = $4498,000

Return on Equity: 1940000/4498,000 *100

= 43.13%

7 0
4 years ago
Surfer sam company produced 4,000 units of product that required 2.5 standard hours per unit. the standard fixed overhead cost p
Svet_ta [14]

The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $400 (unfavorable)

solution

Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = Applied Fixed Overhead – Budgeted Fixed Overhead

Applied Fixed Overhead = 4,000 units ×2.5 hrs per unit×$0.80 = $8000

Applied Fixed Overhead= 4,000 units ×2.5 hrs per unit×$0.80 = $8000

and

Budgeted Fixed Overhead =10,500 hrs × $0.80 = $8400

Budgeted Fixed Overhead =10,500 hrs × $0.80 = $8400

Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = $8000- $8400 = $400 (unfavorable)

Fixed Overhead Volume Variance = 8000- 8400 = 400 (unfavorable)

3 0
3 years ago
On December 31 of the current​ year, Pilozzi Company has the following information​ available:
Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

On December 31 of the current​ year, can the Board of Directors declare and pay a cash dividend of $ 2 ​million

If the company don´'t have enough cash on hand to distribute the previously announced sum to shareholders, it may have to borrow funds to honor the dividend payment.

Explanation:

Companies can pay dividends in  cash or additional shares.

If the company don´'t have enough cash on hand to distribute the previously announced sum to shareholders, it may have to borrow funds to honor the dividend payment.

6 0
3 years ago
On August 1, 2009 a company issues bonds with a par value of $600,000. The bonds mature in 10 years, and pay 6% annual interest,
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

discount on BP   8,000 debit

cash                592,000 debit

bond payable                       600,000 credit

-to record issuance of the bonds--

interest expense     15,416.67 debit

  interest payable                     15,000      credit

  discount on BP                           416.67 credit

--to record year-end adjustment entry--

interest payable   15,000      debit

interest expense   3,083.33 debit

  cash                                       18,000    credit

  Discount on BP                         416.67 credit

-to record first interest payment to bondholders--

Explanation:

proceeds from the bonds:  592,000

face value of the bonds.    (600,000)

discount on BP                        (8,000)

We amortize over the life of the bond in equal parts:

8,000 / 20 payment (10years x 2 payment per year) = 500

interest accrued from August 1st to December 31th:

face value x rate x time accrued

600,000 x 6% x 5/12 = 15,000

accrued proportional amortization

amortizationfor 6 months x accrued month

from Augsut 1st to December 31th

500 x 5/6 = 416.67

February 1st payment:

600,000 x 6% x 1/12 = 3,000 interest expense

cash outlay:

600,000 x 6% x 6/12 = 18,000

amortization 500 - 416.67 = 83.33

8 0
3 years ago
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