Answer:
Option D is correct one.
Company X has a lower coefficient of variation than Company Y.
Explanation:
This is because company X has a lower standard deviation of returns than Company Y. Coefficient of variation = standard deviation/mean*100. Also mean of X will be higher as its expected return is higher than Y. So, the numerator (standard deviation) is lower and denominator (mean) is higher in case of X. This will lower its coefficient of variation than Company Y.
Answer:
A) $424,000
Explanation:
Madison Corporation's current earnings and profits for 20x3 would be:
reported taxable income - accrued federal income taxes + regular depreciation - E&P depreciation + net capital loss carryover =
$400,000 - $136,000 + $200,000 - $60,000 + $20,000 = $424,000
Repay loans so that the bank can get it reserves back up to the required level
Answer:
Check the explanation as follows.
Explanation:
a) If it is invested in US
Current= $40 million
Interest rate= 0.28% p.m
Interest for 1 month= $40 million*0.28%= $0.112 million
Interest for 3 months= $0.112*3= $0.336 million
Total value after 3 months= $40 million+$0.336 million = $40336000.
b) If it is invested in Great Britain.
Convert $40 million into Pounds= $40 million*0.639 = Pound 25.56 million
Ivest in Great Britain for 3 months @ 0.32%
Interest per month= 25.56 million*0.32% *3 = 0.245376
Total Pounds after 3 months= Pound 25.805376
Convert into $= 25.805376/0.642 = $40195289.7156
Value if invested in great britain= $40195289.7156
