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guapka [62]
3 years ago
8

Your bank pays 5.00 percent annual interest compounded semiannually on your savings account. You don’t expect to add to the curr

ent balance of $2,900 over the next four years. How much money can you expect to have at the end of this period?
Business
1 answer:
denpristay [2]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$3,533.37

Explanation:

In this question, we use the Future value formula which is shown below:

Future value = Present value × (1 + rate)^number of years

where,

Present value = $2,900

Rate = 5.00% ÷ 2 = 2.5%

Number of years = 4 year × 2 = 8 years

So, the future value

= $2,900 × (1 + 2.5%)^8

= $2,900 × 1.2184028975

= $3,533.37

Hence, the future value is $3,533.37 or the money that is to be expected at the end of this period

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Liang Company began operations in Year 1. During its first two years, the company completed a number of transactions involving s
horsena [70]

Answer:

1). Account receivables A/c Dr. $1,345,000

                 To sales revenue  A/c $1,345,000

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $975,700

          To merchandise inventory A/c $975,700

(Being the cost is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $19,400

       To accounts receivable A/c $19,400

(Being the written off is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $670,800

           To accounts receivables A/c $670,800

(Being cash received is recorded

1. .Account receivable A/c Dr. $1,529,400

                    To sales A/c $1,529,400

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $1,332,100

          To merchandise inventory A/c $1,332,100

(Being the cost of goods sold  is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $27,000

        To Account receivable A/c $27,000

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $1,391,600

            To account receivable A/c $1,391,600

(Being the cash received is recorded)

4. Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $28,000

(765,600 × 1% + 20,344)

    To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $28,000

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Working note:

Ending Receivables = (654800 + 1529400 - 27,000 - 1,391,600) = $765,600

Total Receivables of 1st Year = 1,345,000 - 19,400 - 670,800 = $654,800

Before Adjustment Ending Allowance Balance = 65,4800 × 1% - 27,000

= 6,548 - 27,000

= 20,344 Debit BalanceThe journal entries are shown below:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows:-

Journal Entries for 1st year

1). Account receivables A/c Dr. $1,345,000

                 To sales revenue  A/c $1,345,000

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $975,700

          To merchandise inventory A/c $975,700

(Being the cost is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $19,400

       To accounts receivable A/c $19,400

(Being the written off is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $670,800

           To accounts receivables A/c $670,800

(Being cash received is recorded)

4.  Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $38,389

(1,345,000-19,400-670,800) × 2.90+ $19,400

          To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $38,389

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Journal Entries for 2nd year

1. .Account receivable A/c Dr. $1,529,400

                    To sales A/c $1,529,400

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $1,332,100

          To merchandise inventory A/c $1,332,100

(Being the cost of goods sold  is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $27,000

        To Account receivable A/c $27,000

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $1,391,600

            To account receivable A/c $1,391,600

(Being the cash received is recorded)

4. Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $28,000

(765,600 × 1% + 20,344)

    To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $28,000

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Working note:

Ending Receivables = (654800 + 1529400 - 27,000 - 1,391,600) = $765,600

Total Receivables of 1st Year = 1,345,000 - 19,400 - 670,800 = $654,800

Before Adjustment Ending Allowance Balance = 65,4800 × 1% - 27,000

= 6,548 - 27,000

= 20,344 Debit Balance

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Harlan Bikes wants to close an unprofitable division with an expensive mortgage, high advertising costs, and high raw material c
Rudiy27

Answer:

Quantitatively, Harlan Bikes is justified in deciding to close the department, but there are other qualitative factors that need to be considered which may result in the company loosing much more that they can save if the department is closed, such as for example a decrease in employee morale, a negative signalling effect to other stakeholders, a drop in sales in related products etc.

Explanation:

A decrease in employee morale can result especially if workers  in other departments are no-longer sure about their future in the company, resulting from fears of their departments being closed. This can negatively affect productivity resulting in lower profits in other department.

A negative signalling effect means that other stakeholders such as investors and creditors may start questioning managements ability to profitably run the business, and the company will be perceived as more risky. Cost of debt and cost of equity capital for example, may go up, due to this higher perceived risk, and  which may reduce the number of positive net present value projects that the company can undertake due to an increase in cost of capital.

If the company carries related products in other departments, it may also see a drop in sales in those sales, which will effectively reduced the savings that are estimated  to be gained from closing the division.

7 0
3 years ago
ABC Steel Co. is considering buying a new machine in order to increase its production capacity using new technology. Details abo
stepan [7]

Answer:

payback period is lesser than 15 years we can say that they should buy the machine

so correct option is c. 4.8 years  

Explanation:

given data

Purchase Cost = $300,000

Savings offered = $62,500 per year

Life of machine = 15 years

to find out

Payback period

solution

first we get here Payback period that is express as

Payback period =  purchase cost ÷ savings   ...........1

put here value we get

Payback period = \frac{300000}{62500}

Payback period = 4.8 years

and here payback period is lesser than 15 years we can say that they should buy the machine

so correct option is c. 4.8 years  

7 0
3 years ago
Assume the money supply is $500, the velocity of money is 8, and the price level is $2. Using the quantity theory of money:
LiRa [457]

Answer:

a) 2000

b) 4000

c) 2000 and 4800

Explanation:

The quantitative theory of money shows how the monetary side of an economy behaves, that is, the effect of money supply on income. It is given by the equation MV = PY, where M = money supply, V is the currency's velocity, P is the price level and Y is the real income level.

M = 500, V = 8, P = 2

a) The real income level:

MV = PY

500 x 8 = 2 x Y

Y = 2000

b) Nominal income level (price level multiplied by real income)

PY

2 x 2000 = 4000

C) If the money supply increases by 20%, ie to 600, the real income will be:

MV = PY

600 x 8 = 2.4 x Y (Y is full employment income, so the effects of money supply will be on the price level)

Y = 2000 Real income remains the same, increase in money supply does not affect real output, only price level, which increases from 2 to 2.4.

The nominal income, in turn, will be:

PY

2.4 x 2000 = 4800

That is, an increase in the money supply only increases nominal income.

3 0
3 years ago
Consider a bond (with par value = $1,000) paying a coupon rate of 7% per year semiannually when the market interest rate is only
docker41 [41]

Answer:

Explanation:

Using a financial calculator; input the following;

Duration to maturity ; N = 3*2 = 6

Par value of the bond ; FV = 1000

Semiannual interest rate; I = 3%

Semiannual coupon payment;PMT = (7%/2)*1000 = 35

then compute the price; i.e the present value; CPT PV = 1027.09

The price after 6-months would be as follows;

Duration to maturity ; N = 2.5*2 = 5

Par value of the bond ; FV = 1000

Semiannual interest rate; I = 3%

Semiannual coupon payment;PMT = (7%/2)*1000 = 35

then compute the price; i.e the present value; CPT PV = 1022.90

7 0
3 years ago
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