The value of <em>a</em> and <em>b</em> for the data values of stalk of corn using the logarithmic regression is -76.2038 and 37.6735 respectively.
<h3>What is logarithmic regression?</h3>
Logarithmic regression is a type of regression which is used to model the statement in which the growth or decay initially at rapid rate, and then slow down with respect to time.
The data of the table for the day and height of the stalk of corn is listed below.
Day (<em>x</em>) 9 12 22 40
Height (<em>y</em>) in 5 17 45 60
Mean of x values,
Mean of y values,
For the above table, the value of correlation coefficient is 0.99133. For these values, the logarithmic regression can be given as,
Compare it with the following logarithmic regression equation, we get
Hence, the value of <em>a</em> and <em>b</em> for the data values of stalk of corn using the logarithmic regression is -76.2038 and 37.6735 respectively.
Learn more about the logarithmic regression here;
brainly.com/question/25226042
Answer:
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
=
sec
2
(
x
)
Start on the left side.
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
Convert to sines and cosines.
Tap for more steps...
1
+
1
cos
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
Write
sin
2
(
x
)
as a fraction with denominator
1
.
1
+
1
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
sin
2
(
x
)
1
Combine.
1
+
1
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
1
Multiply
sin
(
x
)
2
by
1
.
1
+
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
1
Multiply
cos
(
x
)
2
by
1
.
1
+
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
Apply Pythagorean identity in reverse.
1
+
1
−
cos
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
Simplify.
Tap for more steps...
1
cos
2
(
x
)
Now consider the right side of the equation.
sec
2
(
x
)
Convert to sines and cosines.
Tap for more steps...
1
2
cos
2
(
x
)
One to any power is one.
1
cos
2
(
x
)
Because the two sides have been shown to be equivalent, the equation is an identity.
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
=
sec
2
(
x
)
is an identity
Step-by-step explanation:
All real numbers such that y is greater than 3/17 or y>3/17. Hope this helps!!!!
Answer: 1 over 20
Step-by-step explanation: If the spinner has 5 parts to it at purple is one of those parts then the spinner has a 1/5 chance of it landing there.
If there are 4 cards and 1 of them are pink then there is a 1/4 chance of picking pink(if done randomly)
So if we mutiply 1/4 and 1/5, we get 1/20
That is how I arrived at my answer of 1 over 20
Answer:
n + 3m
Step-by-step explanation:
It will become 1/2 * 2n + 1/2 * 6m = n + 3n
