Answer:
1/2
Explanation:
let the alleles of the heterozygous woman without hemophilia be = Xhx
And the alleles of the man with hemophilia be XhY
If both XhY × Xhx; we have:
Xh Y
Xh XhXh XhY
x Xhx xY
XhXh and XhY are affected by the diseases
Xhx is a carrier
xY is normal
∴ the probability(chance) that their first child will have the disease is 2/4 of the total offspring
=1/2
∴ the probability (chance) that their first child will have the disease is 1/2
The answer u r looking for is- Erwin Chargaff. ;)
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