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Llana [10]
3 years ago
11

Ajax, Inc., issued callable bonds with a par value of $1,000,000 that require the payment of a call premium of $10,000. The bond

s have a carrying value of $990,000. We call these bonds prior to maturity on September 30. Complete the necessary journal entry.a. bonds payable 1,000,000b. loss on bond retirement 20,000c. discount on bond 10,000d. cash 1,010,000
Business
1 answer:
almond37 [142]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

bonds payable       1,000,000 debit

loss on redemption    20,000 debit

        discount on bonds               10,000 credit

        cash                                  1,010,000 credit

--to record tyhe call of the bonds on September 30th--

Explanation:

par value of the bonds:    1,000,000

call premium:                   <u>       10,000</u>

total cash disbusements:  1,010,000

carrying value                      990,000

loss on redemption               20,000

<u>Notice: </u>It is a loss as we are paying more than the aliability is worth

discount/premium:

face value     1,000,000

carrying value 990,000

discount             10,000

We write off the bonds account: bond payable and bon discount

we debit the loss and credit hthe cash disbursments

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If you put $50 in a savings account that paid 10% compounded yearly, how much interest would you earn in 3 years?
stepladder [879]

Answer:

$66.55

Explanation:

10% of 50 = 5

55 in one year

10% of 55 = 5.5

60.5 in two years

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Hope this helped

4 0
3 years ago
CodeHead Software Inc. does software development. One important activity in software development is writing software code. The m
Irina18 [472]

Answer:

Explanation:

Standard hours per week = 40 hours

Standard rate per hour = $32

Actual rate per hour = $40

Labour rate variance = 40 - 32 = $8 (unfavourable)

Actual cost per week = 40 × 40 = $1600

Standard cost per week = 40 × 32 = $1280

Labour cost variance = actual cost per week - standard cost per week

= 1600 - 1280

= $320 (unfavourable)

Actual codes written in first week = 5650

Standard codes per week = 5 × 25 × 40 = 5000

Actual cost per code = 1600/5660 = $0.2832

Standard cost per code = 1280/5000 = 0.256

Labour efficiency variance = 0.2832 - 0.256 = $0.0272 (unfavourable)

If the team generated 4,650 lines of code according to the original plan:

Code generated = 4650

Number of programmers = 5

Average codes per hour per programmer = 25

Total codes per hour = 25 × 5 = 125

Standard codes per week = 40 × 125 = 5000

Actual time to write 4650 codes = 4650/125 = 37.2 hours

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Idle time = 40 - 37.2 = 2.8 hours

Labour time variance = 2.8 hours

Cost of idle time = 2.8 × 32 = $89.6 (unfavourable)

4 0
2 years ago
a. government control of the market.b. market forces working through the price mechanism.c. the money supply that serves to keep
Sergeu [11.5K]

Complete Question:

The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to

a. government control of the market.

b. market forces working through the price mechanism.

c. the money supply that serves to keep the economy working smoothly.

d. the role of innovation in maintaining a steady rate of growth.

e. "behind-the-scenes" policy making to influence how markets allocate scarce resources.

Answer:

The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to  Market forces working through the price mechanism.

Explanation:

The invisible hand is the in observable market force, which helps demand and delivers goods automatically to balance in a free market.

Description: In his book ' The Wealth of Nations ' Adam Smith implemented the phrase of the invisible hand.

An invisible hand that defines the processes through which favorable social and economic effects that emerge out of the self-interested behaviors obtained by individuals, who have no intention of producing such results. The term developed by the eighteenth-century British philosopher and economist Adam Smith.

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3 years ago
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7 0
3 years ago
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Owen Company makes a product that sells for $61 per unit. The company pays $37 per unit for the varlable costs of the product an
DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

25%

Explanation:

the formula for the margin of safety is as follows

margin = current sales level -breakeven point/ current sales level x 100

expected sales unit = 20,000 units

the break-even point is fixed costs/contribution margin

fixed costs= $360,000

contribution margin = sales price- variable costs

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=24

breakeven point = $360,000/ 24

=15000

the margin of safety =  20,000-15,000/20,000 x 100

=5000/20000 x 100

=25%

7 0
3 years ago
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