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Rainbow [258]
3 years ago
7

Explain why it is true that for a firm in a perfectly competitive​ market, the​ profit-maximizing condition MR​ = MC is equivale

nt to the condition P​ = MC. When maximizing​ profits, MR​ = MC is equivalent to P​ = MC because _______
Business
1 answer:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
7 0

\bold{MR = P} is equivalent to both of the given conditions in a fully competitive market.

<u>Explanation: </u>

In profit maximization, MR = MC corresponds to P = MC since, for a fully competitive product, the marginal revenue curve is the same as its demand. If a company produces during this level, marginal income is lower than marginal cost.

This ensures that for each additional production unit, the company loses profit and should deliver less. MR > MC the company produces less and may increase income by higher output.

To sum up, MR > MC the company produces less and can make profit by increasing production MR < MC the company produces more and can earn a profit by reducing the output.

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As the manager of a food store, your friend is trying to come up with ways of increasing sales of items that have a high profit
rewona [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is There will be no real change in the sales of those subliminally advertised items.

Explanation:

Subliminal advertising is one whose message is transmitted below the threshold of consciousness, whether using images, sounds or other techniques that are not readily noticeable. The objective of this type of advertising is to influence the wishes of consumers by generating impulses and needs that encourage them to buy or perform a certain marketing action, but without being aware of that influence.

3 0
3 years ago
If the net present value of the payments at the time of the leases was 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the
Aliun [14]

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being  classified as a finance lease are:

(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease  term;

(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be  sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be  reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;

(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is  not transferred;

(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially  all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and

(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major  modifications.

Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True

4 0
3 years ago
Why is the GDP an important economic measurement?
telo118 [61]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

GDP is gross domestic product. meaning a total of all goods bought and sold in a country. this is not useful from an investment standpoint as the scope is to large. D is not true it measures only domestic not foreign product and.

8 0
3 years ago
Your consultant firm has been hired by Eco Brothers Inc. to help them estimate the cost of common equity. The yield on the firm'
Korvikt [17]

Answer: 12.6%

Explanation:

From the question, we are told that a consultant firm has been hired by Eco Brothers Inc. to help them estimate the cost of common equity and that the yield on the firm's bonds is 8.75%, while the firm's economists believe that the cost of common can be estimated using a risk premium of 3.85% over a firm's own cost of debt.

The estimate of the firm's cost of common from reinvested earnings will be the addition of the risk free rate and the risk premium. This will be:

= 8.75% + 3.85%

= 12.6%

4 0
4 years ago
In business correspondence that includes procedures and directions, ______ the steps to differentiate them from each other.
balandron [24]

Answer:

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3 0
2 years ago
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