Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
In simple words, moral hazard refers to the situation when an individual do not act with full responsibility due to the fact that any loss from their behavior will be borne by some third party.
Thus, by assessing the employees before employment by a test will help to decide the employer if the individual is worthy of the job or not. Thus, efficient employees will be selected and less mistakes will occur.
The answer is $48.
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally
It is calculated as follows:
Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost
= 60-12
=$48
Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.
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Answer:
A. Enters a national market after several other foreign firms have already done so.
Answer:
current share price = $85.96
Explanation:
Find the PV of each dividend
PV= FV / (1+r)^t
r= required return
t= total duration
PV(D1) = 18 / (1.14)= 15.78947
PV(D2) = 14 / (1.14^2) = 10.77255
PV(D3) = 13 / (1.14^3) = 8.774630
PV(D4) = 7.50 / (1.14^4) = 4.44060
PV(D5 onwards) is a two-step process, first PV of growing perpetuity;
PV(D5 onwards) at yr4 =[7.50*(1+0.04) ] / (0.14-0.04) = 78
second, finding PV today ; PV(D5 onwards) at yr 0 = 78 / (1.14^4) = 46.18226
Add the PVs to get the current share price = $85.96
Answer:
C. The coupon rate on these bonds would have been higher if Standard and Poor's, Moody's, and Fitch had assigned lower credit ratings
Explanation:
Assume that in January 2017, Vivendi announced a €1.2 billion bond issuance. The bonds have a coupon rate of 6.75% payable semiannually. Assume the bonds have been assigned credit ratings of BBB (stable outlook) by Standard and Poor's, Baa2 (stable outlook) by Moody's, and BBB (stable outlook) by Fitch.
Which of the following is not true? The coupon rate on these bonds would have been higher if Standard and Poor's, Moody's, and Fitch had assigned lower credit ratings.
