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MAXImum [283]
3 years ago
15

What is the algebraic expression for the quotient of j and 8

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dmitrij [34]3 years ago
7 0

The algebraic expression for the quotient of j and 8 is j/8. Fractions are quotients.

You might be interested in
if the kinetic energy of an aeroplane moving at a velocity of 100m/s is 200j ,what is the mass of the aeroplane
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

<u>0.04kg</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

Kinetic energy Formula: eK=0.5×m×v²

to work out mass

we can rearrange the formula and make it:

~m=eK÷(0.5×v²)

now insert the missing digits into the formula:

m=200÷(0.5×100²)

work it out, and you get your answer

m=0.04kg

Hopefully this helped-have a good day)

8 0
2 years ago
Urgent, please i will give brainliest
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

1. \frac{\sqrt{13} }{3}

2. 3.2362

3. \frac{60}{11}

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

Cot is the trigonometric ratio defined by "adjacent" over "opposite". <em>So, adjacent = 2 and opposite = 3.</em>

By pythagorean theorem, we have the "hypotenuse" as  \sqrt{2^2+3^2}=\sqrt{13}

Csc is defined as the trig ratio "hypotenuse" over "opposite". <em>We know the sides, so Csc \theta = \frac{\sqrt{13} }{3}</em>

<em />

<em>First answer choice is right.</em>

<em />

2.

By definition, Csc \theta is the inverse of Sine \theta. <em>If given the value of sin theta, to find value of csc theta, we take the reciprocal of it. Hence:</em>

Csc\theta=\frac{1}{0.3090}\\=3.2362

Third answer choice is right.

3.

By definition tan and cot are inverse of each other. <em>So the value of tan is the reciprocal of the value of cot.</em> We can simply "flip" the value of tan theta to get the value of cot theta. Hence:

Cot\theta=\frac{60}{11}

Third answer is right.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
216 divided by 31
Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

6 r 30

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

Start by setting it up with the divisor 31 on the left side and the dividend 216 on the right side like this:

             

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

Step 2:

The divisor (31) goes into the first digit of the dividend (2), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

Step 3:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (31 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

      0    

Step 4:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (2 - 0 = 2) and write the answer below.

       0    

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2    

Step 5:

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (1) like this:

       0    

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

Step 6:

The divisor (31) goes into the bottom number (21), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

Step 7:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (31 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

         0  

Step 8:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (21 - 0 = 21) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1  

Step 9:

Move down the last digit of the dividend (6) like this:

       0 0  

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1 6

Step 10:

The divisor (31) goes into the bottom number (216), 6 time(s). Therefore put 6 on top:

       0 0 6

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1 6

Step 11:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (31 x 6 = 186) and write the answer at the bottom:

       0 0 6

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1 6

       1 8 6

Step 12:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (216 - 186 = 30) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 0 6

 3 1 ⟌ 2 1 6

     - 0    

       2 1  

     -   0  

       2 1 6

     - 1 8 6

         3 0

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.

The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.

Therefore, the answer to 216 divided by 31 calculated using Long Division is:

6

30 Remainder

8 0
3 years ago
71% of Americans wear glasses.
Alex_Xolod [135]

Answer:

29%

Step-by-step explanation:

100%-71%=29%

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Another 3rd grade question:
liraira [26]
To find the perimeter you would need to add 35+35+65+65=200. If the perimeter is 200, and he circles around it 4 times, 200*4=800, which is the answer. 
 Answer: The total amount of yards that Chris dribbles the ball is 800 yards.
7 0
3 years ago
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