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weeeeeb [17]
3 years ago
6

Identify which of the following statements is true. A. A corporation that accrues compensation payable to an employee must pay t

he amount within two and onehalf months after the close of the taxable year to deduct the amount in the year of the accrual. B. Accrued compensation that is deductible in the year of accrual is considered to be part of an IRS deferred compensation plan. C. Accrued compensation not paid within three and onehalf months after the close of the corporation tax year is deducted in the year following the accrual. D. All of the above are false.
Business
1 answer:
jasenka [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. A corporation that accrues compensation payable to an employee must pay the amount within two and one half months after the close of the taxable year to deduct the amount in the year of the accrual.

Explanation:

This is called the 2.5 months rule. Sections 404 and 451 state that accrual taxpayers are allowed to claim deductions for accrued compensation even if it actually paid them after the business's tax year is over. In order for this rule to apply, the accrued compensation must:

  • satisfy the all events test: the events that result in the accrued compensation must occur before the compensation is made, e.g. you must work for a company during year X before the company hands out a bonus for year X.
  • the compensation must be paid within 2.5 months after the business's tax year is over. E.g. if a company's tax year ends on December 31, all accrued compensations like paid vacations or bonuses must be paid before March 15.
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Given the following data:
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

B.9.0%

Explanation:

The Return on investment (ROI) of any entity/corporation/firm  can be calculated using the following mentioned formula:

ROI=Net operating income/cost of investment

Assuming in this question

Cost of investment =average operating assets=$504,000

Net operating income=$45,360

ROI=$45,360/$504,000=9%

So based on the above discussion the answer is B.9.0%

6 0
3 years ago
The GDP per capita of a country is lower than that of france. if the GDP per capita of the country is adjusted for PPP, the coun
o-na [289]

Answer:

D. The cost of living in the country is lower than that of France

Explanation:

PPP or Purchasing Power Parity is a measure of the cost of living in different countries. When GDP Per Capita is computed accounting for PPP, significant differences can show up between this measure and Nominal GDP Per Capita, this is because of differences in the cost of living among countries.

If the GDP Per Capita Nominal of a country is lower than that of France, it means that measured by US Dollars, the other country produces less output per person than France. However, if the GDP Per Capita PPP of the same country is higher than that of France, it means that even if output is less, people in the other country can buy more things with less income than people in France. (Remember than when calculating GDP, output is the same as income).

4 0
4 years ago
A prosperous economy tends to struggle with high rates of crime, substance abuse, insecure employment, and family dissolution. S
GaryK [48]

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Remember that a prosperous economy does not imply the most happy country or economy.

Therefore high rates of crime, substance abuse, insecure employment, and family dissolution may exist,  but <em>the scale in which this occurs</em> may be relatively lower when compared to a poor economy.

For example, the scale of such vices in United States is lower than in Mexico a poorer economy.

8 0
4 years ago
Kray Inc., which produces a single product, has provided the following data for its most recent month of operations: Number of u
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

the  variable costing unit product cost is $77

Explanation:

The computation of the variable costing unit product cost is shown below:

= Direct material +  direct labour + variable manufacturing overhead

= $39 + $27 + $11

= $77

hence, the  variable costing unit product cost is $77

We simply added the three items so that the variable costing unit could come

The same would be relevant

8 0
3 years ago
. A building owner charges net rent of $20 in the first year, $21 in the second year, and $22 in the third year, but is providin
Anit [1.1K]

Answer: $17.28

Explanation:

6 month free concession in first year drops rent to:

= 20 / 2

= $10

Effective rent = [Present value of Year 1 rent + Present value of Year 2 rent + Present value of Year 3 rent ] / [ 1 - (1 / (1 + rate)^ number of years) / rate]

= [(10 / (1 + 10%) ) + (21 / (1 + 10%)²) + (22 / (1 + 10%)³)] * [1 - (1 / (1 + 10%)³/ 10%)]

= (9.09 + 17.355 + 16.5289) / 2.48685

= $17.28

8 0
3 years ago
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