4/5÷2/3=x
4/5×3/2=x
12/10=x
1 1/5=x
Answer:
12(3y+2x)
Step-by-step explanation:
In this question, we are asked to give an expression that represents the total cost of shorts for the players.
He is ordering 2 pairs of short and 3 shirts. Hence, per player, he would be spending the following:
2 pairs of shorts at x dollars each. Cost here is just $2x
3 shirts at y per one. Cost is $3y
Per player he is spending a total of 3y + 2x
Now, there are people to cater for. The total amount to spend will now be 12(3y + 2z )
The probability of an event is expressed as
![Pr(\text{event) =}\frac{Total\text{ number of favourable/desired outcome}}{Tota\text{l number of possible outcome}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Pr%28%5Ctext%7Bevent%29%20%3D%7D%5Cfrac%7BTotal%5Ctext%7B%20number%20of%20favourable%2Fdesired%20outcome%7D%7D%7BTota%5Ctext%7Bl%20number%20of%20possible%20outcome%7D%7D)
Given:
![\begin{gathered} \text{Red}\Rightarrow2 \\ \text{Green}\Rightarrow3 \\ \text{Blue}\Rightarrow2 \\ \Rightarrow Total\text{ number of balls = 2+3+2=7 balls} \end{gathered}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Bgathered%7D%20%5Ctext%7BRed%7D%5CRightarrow2%20%5C%5C%20%5Ctext%7BGreen%7D%5CRightarrow3%20%5C%5C%20%5Ctext%7BBlue%7D%5CRightarrow2%20%5C%5C%20%5CRightarrow%20Total%5Ctext%7B%20number%20of%20balls%20%3D%202%2B3%2B2%3D7%20balls%7D%20%5Cend%7Bgathered%7D)
The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as
![Pr(\text{blue)}\times Pr(blue)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Pr%28%5Ctext%7Bblue%29%7D%5Ctimes%20Pr%28blue%29)
For the first draw:
![\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue) = }\frac{number\text{ of blue balls}}{total\text{ number of balls}} \\ =\frac{2}{7} \end{gathered}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Bgathered%7D%20Pr%28%5Ctext%7Bblue%29%20%3D%20%7D%5Cfrac%7Bnumber%5Ctext%7B%20of%20blue%20balls%7D%7D%7Btotal%5Ctext%7B%20number%20of%20balls%7D%7D%20%5C%5C%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B7%7D%20%5Cend%7Bgathered%7D)
For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).
Thus,
![\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue)}=\frac{number\text{ of blue balls left}}{total\text{ number of balls left}} \\ =\frac{1}{6} \end{gathered}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Bgathered%7D%20Pr%28%5Ctext%7Bblue%29%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7Bnumber%5Ctext%7B%20of%20blue%20balls%20left%7D%7D%7Btotal%5Ctext%7B%20number%20of%20balls%20left%7D%7D%20%5C%5C%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%7D%20%5Cend%7Bgathered%7D)
The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as
![\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6}\times\frac{2}{7} \\ =\frac{1}{21} \end{gathered}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Bgathered%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%7D%5Ctimes%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B7%7D%20%5C%5C%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B21%7D%20%5Cend%7Bgathered%7D)
The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as
![\begin{gathered} 1-\frac{1}{21} \\ =\frac{20}{21} \end{gathered}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Bgathered%7D%201-%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B21%7D%20%5C%5C%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B20%7D%7B21%7D%20%5Cend%7Bgathered%7D)
Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as
Answer:
(0, 8).
Step-by-step explanation:
The y intercept occurs when = 0, so we have the equation:
y = -3(0) + 8
y = 0 + 8
y = 8.
The answer is (0, 8).
$35,980 would be the correct answer.
$2570x14(paid bi weekly)