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Yuliya22 [10]
4 years ago
8

If I’m saving up for shoes that are 113$ and I get 5$ a week...how many days do I have to wait until I have enough money.(I’m to

o lazy)
Mathematics
1 answer:
postnew [5]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

23 days

Step-by-step explanation:

113/5=22.6 round up 1 day

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What is the greatest common factor for 12 6 and 4?
marin [14]

Answer:2

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
The binomial 8x+6 is equivalent to​
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Using the Distributive Property

The answer would be 3.

2 *4x = 8x and 2 * 3 = 6, to get 8x 6

5 0
3 years ago
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Multiply the binomials: (2c - d) (3c + d)
slega [8]

Answer:

6c^2-cd-d^2

Step-by-step explanation:

How you get the answer is you use the process called FOIL. The F is front, so you multiply the 2c and the 3c to get 6c^2. The O is the outer, so you multiply the 2c and the d(because they are on the outer sides of the parenthesis) to get 2cd. The I is the inner, so you multiply the -d and the 3c(because they are on the inner sides of the parenthesis) to get -3cd. The L is the last, so you multiply d and -d to get -d^2. The 2cd and the -3cd are the same so you have to minus them to get -cd. So the answer is:

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3 0
3 years ago
Simplify the expression. <br><br> -6 + 2(9a + 5)
Andreyy89
-6 + 2(9a + 5)

-6 + 18a + 10

18a + 4

Hope this helps!
Brainliest is much appreciated!
8 0
3 years ago
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An insurance company is setting out its policy for the next year. The chance that a customer (on average) survives another year
Doss [256]

Answer:

The expected loss is  E  =  $6980

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  chance that a customer  survives another year is p =0.96

     The rate at which the policy is sold is   r =  $85 per month

      The rate at which the policy is sold per year is   R =  $85 * 12 per year

                                                                                          = $1020 per year

     The amount paid the the beneficiaries is  A =$200,000

The expected value of profit/loss for this company is mathematically represented as

            E  =  R -[ (1-p)*A]

substituting values

            E  =  1020 -[ (1-0.96)*200000]

             E  =  1020 -8000

             E  =  - $6980

The negative sign shows that it is a loss

7 0
3 years ago
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