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-Dominant- [34]
3 years ago
11

Use the following information to calculate the dollar cost of using a money market hedge to hedge 200,000 British pounds of paya

bles due in 180 days. Assume the firm has no excess cash. Assume the spot rate of the pound is $2.02, and the 180-day forward rate is $2.00. The British interest rate is 5 percent, and the U.S. interest rate is 4 percent over the 180-day period.
Business
1 answer:
levacccp [35]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The dollar cost of using a money market hedge to hedge 200,000 British pounds of payable due in 180 days is <u>$400,152.38</u>.

Explanation:

A money market hedge refers to a method that employed to to preserve the value of a foreign currency transaction in the domestic currency of a company in order to reduce the exchange rate or currency risk that is associated with business transactions with a foreign company.

For this question, the dollar cost of using a money market hedge can be calculated as follows:

Amount needed to invest in British pounds = Amount needed to hedge / (1 + British interest rate) = £200,000 / (1 + 0.05) = £190,476.19

Since this is in British pounds, we have to convert to the US dollars to obtain the amount of the US dollars that is needed to exchange as follows:

Amount needed to invest in the US dollars = Amount needed to invest in British pounds * Spot rate of the pound = £190,476.19 * $2.02 = $384,761.90

We can now calculate the amount needed to repay loan after 180-day as follow:

Amount needed to repay loan after 180-day = Amount needed to invest in the US dollars * (1 + U.S. interest rate) = $384,761.90 * (1 + 0.04) = $400,152.38

Therefore, the dollar cost of using a money market hedge to hedge 200,000 British pounds of payable due in 180 days is <u>$400,152.38</u>.

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Answer:

It ensures that the Effective internal control reduces the risk of asset loss, and helps ensure that plan information is complete and accurate, financial statements are reliable, and the plan's operations are conducted in accordance with the provisions of applicable laws and regulations. ... Why internal control is important to your plan.

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3 years ago
Industrial Machines needs to purchase a new machine costing $1.25 million. Management is estimating the machine will generate ca
max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

The firm shouldn't purchase the machine because the IRR is less than the required minimum

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated using a financial calcuator

Cash flow in year 0 = $-1.25 million.

Cash flow in year 1 = $210,000

Cash flow in year 2 to 5 = $350,000

IRR = 8.51%

The firm shouldn't purchase the machine because the IRR is less than the required minimum

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button

8 0
3 years ago
Did I graph number 1 correct and is the number 2 answer yes?
coldgirl [10]
Yes you did it all correct
7 0
3 years ago
Most modern workers _________.
Lisa [10]

Answer:

B. Will change both their jobs and careers

Explanation:

Internet made it really easy for people to access information , including new educations. Due to the abundant of information that the people can use, acquiring new skills and connections that required to change jobs became much Easier.

According to the data that recorded by the government, around 51% of modern workers change their jobs within 1-5 years period and around 30% workers change their careers every 12 months.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A U.S. treasury bond (selling at a par value of $1,000) that matures at the end of five years is said to have a coupon rate of 6
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

$1,042.04

Explanation:

to calculate the present value using a continuously compounded interest rate, we can use the following 2 formulas:

1) present value = cash flow / eⁿˣ

  • e = 2.71828
  • x = 5% / 2 = 2.5%
  • n = 10
  • cash flow = $1,030

present value = $1,030 / 2.71828¹⁰ˣ⁰°⁰²⁵ = $1,030 / 1.284 = $802.16

2) present value of an annuity = payment [(1 - e⁻ⁿˣ) / (eˣ - 1)]

  • payment = $30
  • x = 2.5%
  • n = 9
  • e = 2.71828

present value = $30 [(1 - 2.71828⁻⁹ˣ⁰°⁰²⁵) / (2.71828⁰°⁰²⁵ - 1)] = $30 [(1 - 2.71828⁻⁹ˣ⁰°⁰²⁵) / (2.71828⁰°⁰²⁵ - 1)] = $30(0.2015 / 0.0252) = $239.88

present value of the stream of cash flows = $802.16 + $239.88 = $1,042.04

7 0
3 years ago
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