Go to the stock market holders, or look it up online
Hope this helps!
Answer:
people
Explanation:
because I know ..........................
Answer:
A.$2,619
B.$6,800
C.$839
D.$495
Explanation:
Calculation to Determine the amount to be paid in full settlement of each of the invoices,
a) (2,800-200)*99%+45
=2,600*99%+45
=2,574+45
= $2,619
b) (7,600-800)
= $6,800
c)$1,400 – $600 – $16 + $55
=$784+$55
= $839
d)$500 –$5 = $495
Answer:
The annuity will cost him $963,212.95.-
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $75,000
Interest rate= 0.0525
n= 20
First, we need to calculate the final value. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i + {[A*(1+i)^n]-A}
A= annual cash flow
FV= {75,000*[(1.0525^20) - 1]/0.0525} + {[75,000*(1.0525^20)] - 75,000}
FV= 2,546,491.88 + 133,690.82= $2,680,182.70
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,680,182.70/(1.0525^20)
PV= $963,212.95
Answer:
d) EPS cannot be calculated if a company has no preferred stock.
Explanation:
The above statement is untrue about E.P.S because the reason why 'Preferred dividend' (which is dividend on preference shares) is subtracted from Net Income, before being divided by the 'Average Number of Common Shares Outstanding' is for comparability.
Since the denominator is based on 'common shares' or 'ordinary shares', it makes sense not to include the part of income that has fallen to preferred shares.
As a matter of fact there are a lot of companies that do not have preferred stock and still report Earnings Per Share on their financial statements.
Finally, still on comparability; E.P.S helps to compare the performance of big companies that have preferred stock with small companies that do not have. Hence EPS can be calculated even when there is no preferred stock.
