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Aneli [31]
3 years ago
5

The risk-free rate of return is 4%, the required rate of return on the market is 10%, and High-Flyer stock has a beta coefficien

t of 2.0. If the dividend per share expected during the coming year, D1, is $4.60 and g = 6%, at what price should a share sell? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Bess [88]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the share should sell at $46

Explanation:

We use the CAPM method to know the required return of the capital

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free 0.04

market rate 0.1

beta(non diversifiable risk) 2

Ke= 0.04 + 2 (0.06)

Ke 0.16000 = 16%

Now we calculate with the dividends grow model the intrinsic value of the share:

\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value

\frac{4.60}{0.16-0.06} = Intrinsic \: Value

$4.6/0.1 = $46

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An economist makes an assumption that each additional year of education causes future wages to rise by 7 percent. In this​ model
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Wage year 4= $12222.19

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Giving the following information:

Each additional year of education causes future wages to rise by 7 percent.

A person with 12 years of education makes ​$21 000 per​ year.

A person with 4 years of education=$?

We will use the present value formula to calculate the wage in year 0. Then with the final value formula calculate the year 4 wage.

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