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Harman [31]
3 years ago
6

Factory Overhead Cost Variances Thomas Textiles Corporation began November with a budget for 40,000 hours of production in the W

eaving Department. The department has a full capacity of 53,000 hours under normal business conditions. The budgeted overhead at the planned volumes at the beginning of November was as follows: Variable overhead $108,000 Fixed overhead 74,200 Total $182,200 The actual factory overhead was $184,400 for November. The actual fixed factory overhead was as budgeted. During November, the Weaving Department had standard hours at actual production volume of 42,000 hours. Determine the variable factory overhead controllable variance and the fixed factory overhead volume variance. Enter a favorable variance as a negative number using a minus sign and an unfavorable variance as a positive number. Round your interim computations to the nearest cent, if required.
Business
1 answer:
sesenic [268]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. Variable factory overhead controllable variance: $3,200 F

b. Fixed factory overhead volume variance: $3,710 F

Explanation:

a)

Standard rate of variable overhead = (variable overhead)/(Production hours)

Standard rate of variable overhead = $108,000 / 40000 = $2.70 per hour

Standard hours for actual production = 42000 hours

Budgeted variable overhead for actual production = (standard hours of production* standard rate of variable overhead)

Budgeted variable overhead for actual production = 42000 * $2.70 = $113,400

Actual factory overhead = $184,400

Fixed overhead = $74,200

Actual variable overhead incurred = (Actual factory overhead) - (Fixed overhead)

Actual variable overhead incurred = $184,400 - $74,200 =$110,200

Variable factory overhead controllable variance = Budgeted variable overhead for actual production - Actual variable overhead

Variable factory overhead controllable variance  = $113,400 - $110,200

Variable factory overhead controllable variance = $3,200 F

b)

Budgeted fixed overhead = $74,200

Predetermined fixed overhead rate = $74200 / 40000 = $1.855 per hour

Fixed overhead applied = Standard hours for actual production * Overhead rate = 42000 * $1.855 = $77,910

Fixed factory overhead volume variance = Fixed overhead applied - Budgeted fixed overhead

= $77910 - $74200= $3,710 F

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A project requires the purchase of $587,000 of equipment that will be depreciated straight-line to a zero book value over the fo
AlekseyPX

Answer:

The cash inflows in Year 2 is: $6,750

The present value of the project in Year 2 is: $5,286 (ignored the depreciation)

The Net Present Value in Year 2 is: $-642,112 (required return rate is 13%)

Explanation: <em><u>(See the attached table also)</u></em>

1. Initial investment: $587,000

2. Year 1:

- Sales: $625,000

- Cash expense: $487,000

- Money to support project: $625,000 x 12% = $75,000

- Tax to pay: $625,000 x 21% = $131,250

=> Cash inflow in Year 1:

            625,000 - 487,000- 75,000 - 131,250 = - 68,250

Present value: -68,250 : (1+0.13) = -60,398

NPV: -60,398 - 587,000 = - 647,398

Year 2:

- Capital from year 1: $75,000

- Sales: $625,000

- Cash expense: $487,000

- Money to support project: $625,000 x 12% = $75,000

- Tax to pay: $625,000 x 21% = $131,250

=> Cash inflow in Year 2:

      75,000 + 625,000 - 487,000- 75,000 - 131,250 = 6,750

Present value: 6,750 : [(1+0.13)^2] = 5,286

NPV year 2 = NPV Year 1 + PV Year 2 = -647,398 + 5,286 = -641, 112

4 0
3 years ago
Assume that an economy produces only two goods, pizza and wings. Which of the following are ways to increase the maximum possibl
Effectus [21]

Answer:

A, B, and D

Explanation:

According to my research on production optimization, I can say that based on the information provided within the question all of the answers provided except for improved wing-making technology would maximize the possible number of pizzas produced. This is because each of these answers provides a method of producing more pizza in the same time frame as before.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

8 0
4 years ago
Corporation borrows cash by signing a $90,000​, 8​%, eight​-month note on December 1 with its local bank. The total cash paid fo
levacccp [35]

Answer:

c. $4,800

Explanation:

Loan Note is the promissory document to repay a specific amount of loan after a specific time period along with interest applicable to the loan value using a specified rate.

Interest amount can be calculated as follow

Interest = Loan Note's face value x Interest rate x Numbers of months upto maturity / NUmbers of months in a year

Placing values in the formula

Interest = $90,000 x 8% x 8/12

Interst = $4,800

6 0
3 years ago
Johnny Cake Ltd. has 8 million shares of stock outstanding selling at $20 per share and an issue of $40 million in 8 percent ann
dangina [55]

Answer:

Year   Cashflow    [email protected]%      PV           [email protected]%     PV

               $                                 $                                  $

  0        (905)           1           (905)           1                 (905)

1-16     52.80         7.8237     413        10.8377           572

16        1,000          0.2176     218      0.4581             458

                                  NPV     (274)              NPV        125                    

Kd = LR     + NPV1/NPV1+NPV2    x (HR – LR)

Kd = 5       + 125/125 + 274   x (10 – 5)

Kd = 5       + 125/399 x 5

Kd = 6.57%    

 

Ke = D1/Po   + g

 Ke = $3/$20 + 0.04

 Ke = 0.19 = 19%

WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)

WACC = 19(160,000,000/196,200,000) + 6.57(36,200,000/196,200,000)

WACC = 15.49 + 1.21

WACC = 16.7%

Market value of the company                                          $

Market value of equity (8,000,000 x $20)                      160,000,000

Market value of bond   ($40,000,000 x $905/$1,000)   36,200,000

Market value of the company                                            196,200,000

Explanation:

In this case, we will calculate cost of debt using interpolation formula. The cashflow for year 0 is the current market price while the cashflow for year 1 to 16 refers to after-tax coupon, which is calculated as R(1-T). R = 8% x $1,000 par value = $80. Then, R(1-T) = 80(1-0.34) = $52.80. The cashflow for year 16 is the par value. The cashflows are discounted in order to obtain the cost of debt.

Cost of equity is the ratio of expected dividend to current market price plus growth rate.

WACC is the aggregate of cost of each capital multiplied by the proportion of each stock in the market value of the company.

5 0
3 years ago
Under market organization, individuals can communicate their preferences to other decision makers directly, through communicatio
frez [133]

Answer:

2. False

Explanation:

Market organization refers to the ways goods and services are bought and sold in the market.

Under market organization, individuals can communicate their buying decisions and their preferences and tastes directly to their peers and known ones which eventually affects the latter's decision making. This is a direct way of communication.

Similarly, another form of communication would be indirect wherein an individual conveys his/her choice of with whom they want to transact with rather than their preferences. Here the communication is indirect and this is a realistic possibility.

Hence the given statement is false.

3 0
4 years ago
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