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4 years ago

6. The money multiplier formula shows effects of

1 answer:

7 0

Answer: a cash deposit into banking system on the money supply

The money multiplier refers to the ratio of deposits to the reserves in a certain banking system. The money multiplier formula is caused by a cash deposit in a bank on the money supply.

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The following are a series of unrelated situations. Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as

Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

Determine its bad debt expense for 2020. Bad debt expense for 20

Cr Bad Debt Expense $ 524 - Credit, which means a profit in the income statement.

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Balance

$ 4,380 - $524 = $ 3,856

Explanation:

December 31, 2020

Dr Accounts receivable $ 48,200

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 4,380

Net Credit Sales $ 1,253,200

Buffalo Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 8% of gross accounts receivable.

Determine its bad debt expense for 2020. Bad debt expense for 20

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 524

Cr Bad Debt Expense $ 524

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Balance

$ 4,380 - $524 = $ 3,856

The allowance for uncollectible Accounts must reflect as balance the value estimated as bad debts, which is 8% of gross accounts receivable. $48,200*0,08 = $3,856

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT, if the company had balances that differ from that value then it must be adjusted to the new estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit) with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0

3 years ago

Electrix Inc. is an electrical appliances manufacturing company. It distributes shares of stock to its employees by placing the

Leni [432]

Answer:

Employee stock ownership plan

Explanation:

An employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is a retirement plan wherein the employer contributes its shares (or funds to purchase its stock) to the fund for the advantage of the employees of the company.

The company maintains an account for every employee who participates in the program.

Over time stock shares accumulate before an employee is eligible to them.

With an ESOP, while still working with the company, you never purchase or keep the stock directly.

If an employee is fired, decides to retire, is disabled, or dies, the company must transfer the stock shares in the account of the employee.

4 0

4 years ago

The current spot exchange rate is $1.55 = €1.00; the three-month U.S. dollar interest rate is 2 percent. Consider a three-month

Elan Coil [88]

Answer:

The least that this option should sell for is $3,125.

Explanation:

Acording to the data, we have the following:

The current spot exchange is $1.55=€1.00

The call option has a strike price of $1.50=€1.00 and spot price is €62,500

Hence,to calculate the least value this option should sell for we have to calculate the following:

$1.55-$1.50=$0.05

Hence, $0.05*62,500= $3,125.

8 0

3 years ago

What class of security risk represents an opportunity for hackers when they find an identified weakness in which necessary contr

kifflom [539]

A Security Vulnerability is a weakness, flaw, or error found within a security system that has the potential to be leveraged by a threat agent in order to compromise a secure network.

Vulnerability refers to "the great or country of being exposed to the opportunity of being attacked or harmed, either bodily or emotionally." A window of vulnerability (WOV) is a time frame inside which protection measures are faded, compromised, or missing. The expertise of social and environmental vulnerability, as a methodological technique, entails the analysis of the risks and assets of disadvantaged companies, which include the aged. The method of vulnerability in itself brings first-rate expectations of social coverage and gerontological planning. Varieties of vulnerability include social, cognitive, environmental, emotional or navy. When it comes to dangers and failures, vulnerability is an idea that links the relationship that people have with their environment to social forces and establishments and the cultural values that maintain and contest them.

Learn more about Vulnerability here

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7 0

1 year ago

Computing first-year depreciation and book value At the beginning of the year, Austin Airlines purchased a used airplane for $33

irakobra [83]

Answer:

1. a. $560,000

b. $13,400,000

c. $7,700,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense and the year end book value for the first year is shown below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ (5 years)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ (5 years)

= $560,000

In this, the depreciation expense is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= Percentage ÷ useful life

= 100 ÷ 5

= 20%

Now the rate is double So, 40%

In year 1, the original cost is $33,500,000, so the depreciation is $13,400,000 after applying the 40% depreciation rate

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)

= $7 per miles

Now for the first year, it would be

= Expected miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,100,000 miles × $7 per miles

= $7,700,000

Now the book value would be

Straight-line method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation

= $33,500,000 - $560,000

= $32,940,000

Double-declining balance method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation

= $33,500,000 - $13,400,000

= $20,100,000

Units-of-production method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation

= $33,500,000 - $7,700,000

= $25,800,000

5 0

4 years ago