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Misha Larkins [42]
3 years ago
9

Find the answer in slope-intercepts a line through (4,2) with the slope 2

Mathematics
1 answer:
vova2212 [387]3 years ago
7 0
We've basically got to work backwards when we do this problem.

Follow the line in your head as I list the values leading to the answer.

(4,2) - (3,0) - (2,-2) - (1, -4) - (0,-6)

So the Y-intercept of this question is -6.
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Which number line represents the solution to the inequality x - 3 > 2
Ivahew [28]

Answer: x > 5

Step-by-step explanation: To solve for <em>x</em> in this inequality, our goal is the same as it would be if this were an equation, to get x by itself on one side.

Since 3 is being subtracted from x, we add 3 to

both sides of the inequality to get x > 5.

When graphing x > 5, we have an open circle on 5 and the

open circle tells us that 5 is not part of our answer.

Then we draw an arrow going to the right to represent

all possible solutions to this inequality, any number greater than 5.

6 0
3 years ago
-4²+6·-4+9<br> please!!! answer
kumpel [21]
It’s: -31
when you are simplify this expression you get -31


6 0
3 years ago
A recipe needs 4/5 cups of butter for every 2 cups of flour. If you plan to use 3 cups of flour, how much butter will you need?
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

1 1/5 cups of butter

Step-by-step explanation:

4/5=2

      =3

 4/5 x 3=12/5

12/5 / 2

12/5 x 1/2=1 1/5

7 0
3 years ago
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xxMikexx [17]

Answer:

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5 0
3 years ago
Each letter of the word "supercalifragilisticexpialidocious" is placed into a bag and drawn at 3 times, replacing the letter aft
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

P(X ≥ 1) = 0.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

The word "supercalifragilisticexpialidocious" has 34 letters in which 'i' appears 7 times in the word.

Then; the probability of success = 7/34 = 0.20588

Using Binomial distribution to determine the probability; we have:

P(X = x)  = ^nC_x  \ \beta^x   \  (1 - \beta)^{n-x}

where;

x = 0,1,2,...n    and    0  <  β   <   1

and x represents the  number of successes.

However; since the letter is drawn thrice; the probability that the letter "i" is drawn at least once can be computed as:

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X< 1)

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X =0)

P(X \ge 1) =  1 - \bigg [ {^3C__0} (0.21)^0 (1-0.21)^{3-0} \bigg]

P(X \ge 1) =  1 - \bigg [ 1 \times 1 (0.79)^{3} \bigg]

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.50

P(X ≥ 1) = 0.50

4 0
3 years ago
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