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zvonat [6]
3 years ago
9

The rule of 70 is a measure of how long it will take for prices to __________ at a given inflation rate.

Business
1 answer:
swat323 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A. double

Explanation:

Rule 70 is used to calculate the numbers of years it takes for an investment  or variable to double in value given a certain growth rate. In this case, the variable is prices and the growth rate is  inflation  rate. It is calculated by dividing number 70 by inflation rate.

For example;

Assume inflation rate is 6%, the prices will double in ; 70/6 = 11.7 years

And if inflation is 2%, the prices will double in 70/2 = 35 years

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At a large department store, the number of years of employment for a cashier is a normally distributed variable with a mean of 5
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

0.0084

Explanation:

For this probability problem, we will have to make use of the normal probability distribution table.

to use the table, we will have to compute a certain value

z = (x- mean) /Standard deviation

z = \frac{(10 - 5.7)}{1.8} = 2.39

Probability he has worked in the store for over 10 years can be obtained by taking the z value of 2.39 to the normal probability distribution table to read off the values.

<em>To do this, on the  "z" column, we scan down the value 2.3. we then trace that row until we reach the value under the ".09" column. </em>

This gives us 0.99916

Thus we have P (Z < 2.39) = 0.9916

We subtract the value obtained from the table from 1 to get the probability required.

1 - 0.9916 = 0.0084

The Probability that the employee has worked at the store for over 10 years = 0.0084

4 0
3 years ago
If the elasticity for computers at the current price is at 6.4, what would happen to total revenues if a computer manufacturer d
MA_775_DIABLO [31]
They would go down drastically fast.
5 0
3 years ago
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In year 1000 a man named acholos nemroc celebrated him birthday, turning 100 years old, how old was he in -100?
Over [174]

Answer:

Okay

Explanation:

The answer is jjgxhkdyyffhohohugugojjhyfyffygihhhyghv28283939

3 0
3 years ago
A phenotypically non-bald woman and a bald man produce four bald sons and a non-bald daughter. What are the most likely genotype
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

b. bb and BB

Explanation:

For example, pattern of baldness is dominant in man and recessive in female. This is because the gene for baldness (B) in heterozygous state (Bb) expresses itself in male but not in female. It means gene B for baldness behaves as a dominant in male and as a recessive in female. In man due to influence of male sex hormone, a single gene for this trait can cause loss of hair.

But in woman (due to the absence of the male sex hormone) two genes are required to produce baldness.

BB or Bb = Bald in males

bb = not bald in male

BB = Bald in females

Bb or bb = not bald in females

Non-bald womam (bb; XX) x Bald man (BB; XY)

                       XB                                              BY

Xb     XX; Bb (non-bald daughter)          XY; Bb (bald son)

8 0
3 years ago
At a promotion interview, it is important to ________.
stich3 [128]
Be honest about your qualifications
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3 years ago
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