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likoan [24]
4 years ago
11

I need help on number 3

Mathematics
1 answer:
MatroZZZ [7]4 years ago
4 0
The first step is to turn the 3 1/5 into an improper fraction, and then change it so that the denominator is 10, just like the 4/10, I'm order to make it easier to divide. then you divide 32 by 4 to get 8.

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yan [13]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

As per the question,

let us consider f(x) = tan(x).

We know that <u>The Maclaurin series is given by:</u>

f(x) = f(0) + \frac{f^{'}(0)}{1!}\cdot x+ \frac{f^{''}(0)}{2!}\cdot x^{2}+\frac{f^{'''}(0)}{3!}\cdot x^{3}+......

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f'''(x) = 2 × 2 sec²(x) tan(x) tan(x) + 2 sec²(x) × sec²(x)

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By putting all the values in the Maclaurin series, we get

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Therefore, the expansion of tan x at x = 0 is

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Here are some points, have a good day!
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.....

Step-by-step explanation:

................thanks.......

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