A nation or empire can do it without bloodshed if both countries agree to it. It is called Annexation.
Answer:
British raj, period of direct British rule over the Indian subcontinent from 1858 until the independence of India and Pakistan in 1947. The raj succeeded management of the subcontinent by the British East India Company, after general distrust and dissatisfaction with company leadership resulted in a widespread mutiny of sepoy troops in 1857, causing the British to reconsider the structure of governance in India. The British government took possession of the company’s assets and imposed direct rule. The raj was intended to increase Indian participation in governance, but the powerlessness of Indians to determine their own future without the consent of the British led to an increasingly adamant national independence movement.
Though trade with India had been highly valued by Europeans since ancient times, the long route between them was subject to many potential obstacles and obfuscations from middlemen, making trade unsafe, unreliable, and expensive. This was especially true after the collapse of the Mongol empire and the rise of the Ottoman Empire all but blocked the ancient Silk Road. As Europeans, led by the Portuguese, began to explore maritime navigation routes to bypass middlemen, the distance of the venture required merchants to set up fortified posts.
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I’m pretty for sure it’s the first one I hope I got that right I also had this question before
Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
Because the united states has people of all languages while Europe you will mostly find people of all one language
John Calhoun argued that the 1828 tariff helped the North at the expense of the South (c). This was the case because the tariff bolstered Northerner industrial markets but required Southerners to pay more for manufactured good.
