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Genrish500 [490]
3 years ago
6

In October, Pine Company reports 21,000 actual direct labor hours, and it incurs $118,000 of manufacturing overhead costs. Stand

ard hours allowed for the work done is 20,600 hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $6.00 per direct labor hour. Compute the total overhead variance.
Business
1 answer:
Vlada [557]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: $5,600 Favorable

Explanation:

Total Overhead Variance is a method of measuring if the company is spending more than it is supposed to on overhead. It checks this by computing the difference between the Actual Overhead spent and the Budgeted/ Standard Overhead that it was supposed to spend.

If the Actual Overhead is more than the Standard Overhead the Variance is Negative, if the reverse is true then the Variance is Positive.

The formula for the Variance given the details in the question is,

Total Overhead Variance = Standard total Overhead - Actual Overhead

= (Standard hours * Pre-determined Overhead rate) - Actual Hours

= ( 20,600 * 6) - 118,000

= 123,600 - 118,000

= $5,600

The Standard Total Overhead is more than the Actual Total Overhead so the Variance is Positive as Pine Company spent less than it thought it would.

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Based on the corporate valuation model, gray entertainment's total corporate value is $1,150 million. the company's balance shee
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

$26.67 million

Explanation:

The computation of price per share is shown below:-

Total market value = $1,150 million + $120 million

= $1,270 million

Market value of equity = Total market value - value of debt - value of preferred stock

= $1,270 million - ($120 million + $300 million + $50 million)

=  $1,270 million - $470 million

= $800 million

Price per share = Market value of equity ÷ Stock outstanding

= $800 million ÷ $30 million

= $26.67 million

5 0
3 years ago
Infomercial are _than commercials.
Oksana_A [137]
The answer is D.Shorter
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Describe the differences among ethnocentric, polycentric, regiocentric, and geocentric management orientations.
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Describing the differences among ethnocentric, polycentric, regiocentric, and geocentric management orientations. We can explain them as follows.

In an ethnocentric management orientation, domestic enterprises or organizations think that their domestic activities or practices within the domestic area influence the domestic market. In this situation, the management teams are frequently transferred from their hometown or place of origin to a new site or a foreign nation.

The approach known as polycentric management orientation is one in which companies and organizations think there is always a distinctive strategy in every global market. This entails hiring and advancing suitable people from the same nation or region that the company works in. It primarily aims to lower hiring costs.

On the other side, the huge multinational firms that tend to construct groups of nations or regions where their branches are located and then develop policies and strategies that would only be relevant in those nations or regions are known as "regiocentric management orientation."

Contrary to the polycentric method, firms and organizations using geocentric management operations hire personnel from all over the world. KFC frequently adopts this stance.

Hence, differences among them have been explained above.

Learn more about Management:

brainly.com/question/1276995

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
Economics: A group of competitors who work in unison to control the supply and price of their product is called a
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

cartel

Explanation:

A "cartel" is a<em> group of competitors or market participants</em> who are independent from each other. They <u>work in unison by cooperating secretly</u> in an <em>unlawful way</em> so they can control the supply and price of their products. In this way, they can dominate the market.

Such type of alliance with rivals have existed since the ancient times. It <em>increased following </em><em>World War I,</em> but<em> started declining after </em><em>World War II</em>.

So, this explains the answer.

6 0
4 years ago
China had a $214 billion overall current account surplus in 2012. Assuming that China’s net debt forgiveness was zero in 2012 (i
Pie

Answer:

The correct asnwer is $-214 billion.

Explanation:

A surplus occurs when an account exceeds the credit after having paid all its debts and obligations.

As the example says, assuming that China’s net debt forgiveness was zero in 2012, then the net balance of China's financial account balance would be -214 billion.

This means that China would be facing a deficit.

A defit means that more money comes out of our company's account than it enters.

Which causes China to have a<u> negative balance account.</u>

4 0
3 years ago
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